Learning sharks-Share Market Institute

 

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Koi Bhi tata ka share utha lo, Aaj nai to Kal profit hi Dega – Harshad Mehta

In 20 years, Tata stock has grown from 1 lakh to 169 crores. From ₹3 to ₹2535

A multi-bagger stock is one in which a long-term stock investor benefits not just from an increase in the share price of its portfolio stock. There are numerous alternative sources of income for shareholders that allow their money to increase even when the stock is not rising. Announcements of interim dividends, bonus shares, and share buybacks, among other things, are additional avenues by which a long-term stock investor’s money can expand. However, if the stock grows in tandem with these factors, it becomes the frosting on the cake for stock investors.

Titan Company shares are one such firm that has provided excellent returns to its owners while also announcing bonus shares and a stock split. Titan shares are among the multibagger equities that the Indian stock market has produced in recent years.

Titan’s share price has risen from 3 to 2,535 per share, increasing over 845 times in the last 20 years. However, long-term investors have benefited from more than just stock price increase. During this time, the company also announced a 10:1 stock split and a 1:1 bonus share. Though an investor does not profit from a stock split, the number of shares issued increases and the input cost decreases. As the Tata group company announced a 10:1 stock split in June 2011, the stockholders who purchased Titan shares 20 years ago in August 2002 saw their input cost drop to 10% of their actual cost.

In June 2011, the Tata group corporation announced a 1:1 bonus share for its stockholders. As a result of the bonus share issuance, the cost price of Titan shares purchased 20 years ago fell by 50%. Because of the stock split, their input cost was already 10% of the total cost. The bonus share issue reduced their cost price to 5% of their actual purchase price. Due to the 10:1 stock split and 1:1 bonus shares announcement, the actual cost of one Titan share for such investors came down to 0.15 apiece.

As a result, long-term investors who purchased Titan Company shares 20 years ago for $3 per share now pay $0.15 per share thanks to the 10:1 stock split and 1:1 bonus shares announced in June 2011. Titan share price has risen from 0.15 to 2,535 per share, logging 16,900 times in the last two decades for such long-term investors.

If an investor had invested one lakh rupees in Titan Company shares twenty years ago at a price of three rupees, the amount would have increased 16,900 times (2535/0.15), amounting to 169 crore in the last two decades.

Biggest Indian stock market scams – All covered

For a long time, the stock market has been one of the public’s preferred investing options. It has made many people wealthy by returning high returns on their investments. However, there have been instances where fraudsters duped investors and misled the market, creating irreversible and irreplaceable damage, and those stories will be remembered for years to come.

In this post, we’ll take a look at several fraudulent acts that had such a big impact that they shook the stock market when they were found.

This had a negative impact on the system’s normal operation as well as the finances of the investors, lowering the overall worth of the system.

ScamNature of IndustryFraud PerpetratorsYearModus Operandi
Harshad Mehta scamCapital marketHarshad Mehta1992Harshad Mehta used bank receipts extensively to raise funds from the banks. Subsequently invested the same in the stocks listed in the BSE to inflate the stock prices artificially
CRB scamCapital MarketC R Bhansali1996Raised public money through various instruments like Fixed Deposits, Mutual Funds via non-existent firms used the same to rig share prices in the stock market
Ketan Parekh scamCapital MarketKetan Parekh2001Procured funds from banks and other financial institutions.Used those funds to inflate the stock prices artificially through circular trading
UTI scamMutual FundChairman, Executive Director, Stock Broker2001The mismanagement of continuously investing in high-risk stocks and share heavy investments in Ketan Parekh’s K-10 shares
Satyam ScamIT CompanyAuditor, Director, Managers2009The top management of the software company manipulated the accounts to show inflated sales, profits and margins from 2003 to 2008Overstated the assets false disclosures
Sahara scamNBFCSubrata Roy2009Sahara Housing Investment Corp. Ltd. (SHICL), issued Optional Fully Convertible Debentures (OFCD) and illegally collected investor money circumventing the provisions of SEBI
Saradha Chit Fund scamPonzi schemeSudipta Sen2013The Ponzi scheme run by Saradha Group collected money from low-income investors by issuing redeemable bonds and secured debentures, promising incredibly high profits from reasonable investments. Embezzled the money of the investors and defaulted on repayments
NSEL* scam*NSEL, a company that provided an electronic platform to farmers and traders for spot trading in farm products and bullion among otherscommodity marketCEO, Promoters2013The commodities that were traded were not found in the warehousesExcessive short selling and false reporting to exchange default on a payment to investors
PACL scamPonzi schemeMD, Promoters, Directors2014The Ponzi land scheme run by PACL Ltd. duped investors in the name of assured returns from selling non-existent landsSiphoned the collected money and defaulted on re-payment
Co-location scamCapital MarketOfficials of NSE, Brokers2015Selected players allegedly obtained market price information ahead of the rest of the market through a co-location facility

Other notable frauds in the stock market that made headlines are:

  • Mishka Finance and Trading Limited – IPO Fraud: 2013-14
  • Rakhi Trading Case & Ors-Reversal Trades in F&O: 2007/2014-15.
  • Eco-Friendly Food and Esteem Bio Organic – LTCG/Penny Stock Fraud
  • WhatsApp Leak Case – Mass Insider Trading Case of 2017

Indian billionaire business magnate, stock market Investor, Rakesh Jhunjhunwala Death: passes away at 62

Billionaire investor Rakesh Jhunjhunwala, dubbed “India’s Warren Buffet,” died on Sunday at the age of 62 in Mumbai. He had been ill for a few days and died today in Mumbai’s Breach Candy Hospital, according to hospital sources.

Jhunjhunwala founded Akasa Air and was dubbed “India’s Warren Buffett.”
Rakesh Jhunjhunwala, a self-made trader, investor, and businessman, was the son of an income tax officer and is survived by his wife and three children.


Jhunjhunwala developed a youthful interest in stocks after witnessing his father, a retired tax commissioner, manage market interests, he told Bloomberg News in 2005.


Jhunjhunwala, who graduated with honours from Mumbai’s Sydenham College of Commerce and Economics, borrowed $100 from a brother-in-law in 1985 and began buying shares when he was 25.

According to the Breach Candy Hospital in Mumbai, Jhunjhunwala had been ill for a few days and died today.


Rakesh Jhunjhunwala, who was born on July 5, 1960, attended the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India and married Rekha Jhunjunwala, who is also a stock market investor.

Jhunjhunwala was the owner of RARE Enterprises, a privately held stock trading firm.
He was also the owner of Akasa Air, India’s newest airline, which took to the sky earlier this month.

Many people questioned why he wanted to create an airline at a time when aviation was struggling, to which he responded, “I say I’m prepared for failure.” Rakesh Jhunjhunwala was always optimistic about India’s stock market, and the majority of the stocks he bought turned out to be multi-baggers. Rakesh Jhunjhunwala died at the age of 62. He began his stock market career while still in college with a Rs 5,000 investment, and he recently teamed up with ex-Jet Airways CEO Vinay Dube and former IndiGo CEO Aditya Ghosh to create Akasa Air, India’s newest budget carrier. On August 7, the airline launched commercial operations with a flight from Mumbai to Ahmedabad.

Jhunjhunwala, an investor with a Midas touch, was the country’s 48th richest man.

Jhunjhunwala invested Rs 5,000 in stock in 1985. That capital had grown to Rs 11,000 crore by September 2018. Rakesh Jhunjhunwala’s death leaves an indelible mark on the financial world, according to Prime Minister Narendra Modi. Rakesh Jhunjhunwala will be remembered for providing India with its new airline, Akasa Air, after more than a decade, said aviation minister Jyotiraditya Scindia on Sunday, while expressing condolences on the ace investor’s death.

Scindia inaugurated Akasa Air’s inaugural flight, from Mumbai to Ahmedabad, on August 7. The airline acquired its air operator licence from the Directorate General of Civil Aviation on July 7. (DGCA).

Recent Tweets

Top 15 Instagram stock market accounts to follow – August edition

Instagram has been one of the sources to gain financial knowledge. If you are into trading and investing and use Instagram frequently. You should try out these amazing Instagram accounts. with over combines million followers, these folks are giving away the best of information through social media.

one can simply keep themselves updated by simply following them on Instagram. Here is the list of the top most accounts. If you like what they do, do follow them.

TOP 15 STOCK MARKET ACCOUNTS ON INSTAGRAM

  1. atradingschool 320k followers
  2. tradingindiaconsultant 244K followers
  3. stockeducation.in 142k followers
  4. stockmarketgyani 120k followers
  5. discipline_trader_07 84.4k followers
  6. indian_stock_market468 82k followers
  7. sharemarket.guru 70k
  8. tradingwaala 62.9k
  9. stocks_station_ 30.5k
  10. _mr_market_ 28.2K followers
  11. investotrade_ 24.1K followers
  12. market_guru_19 14.9K followers
  13. deltatraderstamil 12.6K followers
  14. station91.in 8533 followers
  15. official_future_mind_trade 4,129 followers

  1. atrading school 320k Followers

2. tradingindiaconsultant 244k followers

3. stockeducation.in 142k followers

4. stockmarketgyani 120k followers

5. discipline_trader_07 84.4k followers

6. indian_stock_market468 82k followers

7. sharemarket.guru 70k

8. tradingwaala 62.9k

9. stocks_station_ 30.5k

10. _mr_market_ 28.2K followers

11. investotrade_ 24.1K followers

12. market_guru_19 14.9K followers

13. deltatraderstamil 12.6K followers

14. station91.in 8533 followers

15. official_future_mind_trade 4,129 followers

All of volatility

Background

After learning about Delta, Gamma, and Theta, we’re ready to dive into one of the most intriguing Options Greeks: Vega. Vega, as most of you may have surmised, is the rate of change of option premium in relation to volatility change. But the question is, what exactly is volatility? I’ve asked several traders this topic, and the most popular response is “Volatility is the up-and-down movement of the stock market.” If you share my views on volatility, it is past time we addressed this.

So here’s the plan; I’m guessing this will take several chapters –

  1. We will understand what volatility really means
  2. Understand how to measure volatility
  3. Practical Application of volatility
  4. Understand different types of volatility
  5. Understand Vega

So let’s get started.

Moneyball

Have you seen the Hollywood movie ‘Moneyball’? Billy Beane is the manager of a baseball team in the United States, and this is a true story. The film follows Billy Beane and his young colleague as they use statistics to uncover relatively unknown but exceptionally brilliant baseball players. A method unheard of at the time, and one that proved to be both inventive and revolutionary.

Moneyball’s trailer may be viewed here.

I enjoy this film not just because of Brad Pitt, but also because of the message it conveys about life and business. I won’t go into specifics right now, but let me draw some inspiration from the Moneyball technique to assist illustrate volatility:).

Please don’t be dismayed if the topic below appears irrelevant to financial markets. I can tell you that it is important and will help you better understand the phrase “volatility.”

Consider two batsmen and the number of runs they have scored in six straight matches –

MatchBillyMike
12045
22313
32118
42412
51926
62319

You are the team’s captain, and you must select either Billy or Mike for the seventh match. The batsman should be trustworthy in the sense that he or she should be able to score at least 20 runs. Who would you pick? According to my observations, people address this topic in one of two ways:

  1. Calculate both batsman’s total score (also known as ‘Sigma’) and select the batsman with the highest score for the following game. Or…
  2. Calculate the average (also known as ‘Mean’) amount of runs scored per game and select the hitter with the higher average.

Let us do the same and see what results we obtain –

  • Billy’s Sigma = 20 + 23 + 21 + 24 + 19 + 23 = 130
  • Mike’s Sigma = 45 + 13 + 18 + 12 + 26 + 19 = 133

So, based on the sigma, you should go with Mike. Let us compute the mean or average for both players and see who performs better –

  • Billy = 130/6 = 21.67
  • Mike = 133/6 = 22.16

Mike appears to be deserving of selection based on both the mean and the sigma. But don’t jump to any conclusions just yet. Remember, the goal is to select a player who can score at least 20 runs, and with the information we currently have (mean and sigma), there is no way to determine who can score at least 20 runs. As a result, let us conduct additional research.

To begin, we will compute the deviation from the mean for each match played. For example, we know Billy’s mean is 21.67 and that he scored 20 runs in his first encounter. As a result, the departure from the mean from the first match is 20 – 21.67 = – 1.67. In other words, he scored 1.67 runs below his average. It was 23 – 21.67 = +1.33 during the second match, which means he scored 1.33 runs more than his usual score.

Here is a diagram that represents the same thing (for Billy) –

learning sharks

For each match played, the middle black line indicates Billy’s average score, while the double arrowed vertical line reflects his deviation from the norm. We shall now calculate another variable named ‘Variance.’

The sum of the squares of the deviation divided by the total number of observations is the definition of variance. This may appear to be frightening, but it is not. We know that the total number of observations in this situation is equal to the total number of matches played, so 6.

As a result, the variance may be computed as –

Variance = [(-1.67) ^2 + (1.33) ^2 + (-0.67) ^2 + (+2.33) ^2 + (-2.67) ^2 + (1.33) ^2] / 6
= 19.33 / 6
= 3.22

Further, we will define another variable called ‘Standard Deviation’ (SD) which is calculated as –

std deviation = √ variance 

So the standard deviation for Billy is –
= SQRT (3.22)
= 1.79

Similarly, Mike’s standard deviation equals 11.18.

Let’s add up all of the figures (or statistics) –

StatisticsBillyMike
Sigma130133
Mean21.622.16
SD1.7911.18

We understand what ‘Mean’ and ‘Sigma’ mean, but what about SD? The standard deviation represents the difference from the mean.

The textbook definition of SD is as follows: “The standard deviation (SD, also denoted by the Greek letter sigma, ) is a metric used in statistics to quantify the amount of variation or dispersion of a set of data values.”

Please do not mistake the two sigmas – the total is also known as sigma represented by the Greek symbol, and the standard deviation is also known as sigma represented by the Greek symbol.

PlayerLower EstimateUpper Estimate
Billy21.6 – 1.79 = 19.8121.6 + 1.79 = 23.39
Mike22.16 – 11.18 = 10.9822.16 + 11.18 = 33.34

These figures indicate that in the upcoming 7th match, Billy is likely to score between 19.81 and 23.39, while Mike is likely to score between 10.98 and 33.34. Mike’s range makes it difficult to predict whether he will score at least 20 runs. He can score 10, 34, or anything in between.

Billy, on the other hand, appears to be more consistent. His range is limited, thus he will neither be a power hitter nor a bad player. He is predicted to be consistent and should score between 19 and 23 points. In other words, picking Mike over Billy for the seventh match can be dangerous.

Returning to our initial question, who do you believe is most likely to score at least 20 runs? The answer must be obvious by now; it must be Billy. In comparison to Mike, Billy is more consistent and less hazardous.

So, in general, we used “Standard Deviation” to estimate the riskiness of these players. As a result, ‘Standard Deviation’ must indicate ‘Risk.’ In the stock market, volatility is defined as the riskiness of a stock or index. Volatility is expressed as a percentage and is calculated using the standard deviation.

Volatility is defined as “a statistical measure of the dispersion of returns for certain security or market index” by Investopedia. Volatility can be measured using either the standard deviation or the variance of returns from the same securities or market index. The bigger the standard deviation, the greater the risk.”

According to the aforementioned criterion, if Infosys and TCS have volatility of 25% and 45 percent, respectively, then Infosys has less dangerous price swings than TCS.

Some food for thought

Before I wrap this chapter, let’s make some predictions –
Today’s Date = 15th July 2015
Nifty Spot = 8547
Nifty Volatility = 16.5%
TCS Spot = 2585
TCS Volatility = 27%

Given this knowledge, can you forecast the anticipated trading range for Nifty and TCS one year from now?

Of course, we can, so let’s put the math to work –

AssetLower EstimateUpper Estimate
Nifty8547 – (16.5% * 8547) = 71368547 + (16.5% * 8547) = 9957
TCS2585 – (27% * 2585) = 18872585 + (27% * 2585) = 3282

So, based on the aforementioned calculations, Nifty is expected to trade between 7136 and 9957 in the next year, with all values in between having a varied likelihood of occurrence. This suggests that on July 15, 2016, the probability of the Nifty being around 7500 is 25%, while the probability of it being around 8600 is 40%.

This brings us to a fascinating platform –

  1. We estimated the Nifty range for a year; can we estimate the range Nifty is expected to trade in the next few days or the range Nifty is likely to trade up till the series expiry?
  2. If we can accomplish this, we will be in a better position to identify options that are likely to expire worthless, which means we can sell them now and pocket the premiums.
  3. We estimated that the Nifty will trade between 7136 and 9957 in the next year, but how certain are we? Is there any level of certainty in expressing this range?
  4. How is Volatility calculated? I know we talked about it previously in the chapter, but is there a simpler way? We could use Microsoft Excel!
  5. We computed the Nifty’s range using a volatility estimate of 16.5 percent; what if the volatility changes?

We’ll answer all of these topics and more in the next chapters!

Calculating Volatility in Excel

In the previous chapter, we discussed the notion of standard deviation and how it may be used to assess a stock’s ‘Risk or Volatility.’ Before we go any further, I’d like to discuss how volatility can be calculated. Volatility data is not easily accessible, therefore knowing how to compute it yourself is always a smart idea.

Of course, we looked at this calculation in the previous chapter (recall the Billy & Mike example), and we outlined the procedures as follows –

  1. Determine the average
  2. Subtract the average from the actual observation to calculate the variance.
  3. Variance is calculated by squaring and adding all deviations.
  4. Determine the standard deviation by taking the square root of the variance.

The goal of doing this in the previous chapter was to demonstrate the mechanics of standard deviation calculation. In my opinion, it is critical to understand what goes beyond a formula because it just increases your thoughts. However, in this chapter, we will use MS Excel to compute the standard deviation or volatility of a specific stock. MS Excel follows the identical processes as described previously, but with the addition of a button click.

I’ll start with the border steps and then go over each one in detail –

  1. Download historical closing price data.
  2. Determine the daily returns.
  3. Make use of the STDEV function.

So let us get started right now.

Step 1 – Download the historical closing prices

This may be done with any data source you have. The NSE India website and Yahoo Finance are two free and dependable data providers.

For the time being, I shall use data from the NSE India. At this point, I must tell you that the NSE’s website is pretty informative, and I believe it is one of the top stock exchange websites in the world in terms of information supplied.

Here is a snapshot where I have highlighted the search option –

learning sharks

Once you have this, simply click on ‘Download file in CSV format (highlighted in the green box) and you’re done.

You now have the necessary data in Excel. Of course, in addition to the closing prices, you have a wealth of other information. I normally remove any unnecessary information and only keep the date and closing price. This gives the sheet a clean, crisp appearance.

Here’s a screenshot of my excel sheet at this point –

learning sharks

Please keep in mind that I have removed all extraneous material. I only kept the date and the closing prices.

Step 2 – Calculate Daily Returns

We know that the daily returns can be calculated as –

Return = (Ending Price / Beginning Price) – 1

However, for all practical purposes and ease of calculation, this equation can be approximated to:

Return = LN (Ending Price / Beginning Price), where LN denotes Logarithm to Base ‘e’, note this is also called ‘Log Returns’.

Here is a snapshot showing you how I’ve calculated the daily log returns of WIPRO –

learning sharks

To calculate the lengthy returns, I utilized the Excel function ‘LN’.

Step 3 – Use the STDEV Function

After calculating the daily returns, you may use an excel function called ‘STDEV’ to calculate the standard deviation of daily returns, which is the daily volatility of WIPRO.

Note – In order to use the STDEV function all you need to do is this –

  1. Take the cursor an empty cell
  2. Press ‘=’
  3. Follow the = sign by the function syntax i.e STDEV and open a bracket, hence the empty cell would look like =STEDEV(
  4. After the open bracket, select all the daily return data points and close the bracket
  5. Press enter

Here is the snapshot which shows the same –

learning sharks

Once this is completed, Excel will quickly determine WIPRO’s daily standard deviation, often known as volatility. I receive 0.0147 as the answer, which when converted to a percentage equals 1.47 percent.

This means that WIPRO’s daily volatility is 1.47 percent!

WIPRO’s daily volatility has been estimated, but what about its annual volatility?

Now here’s a crucial rule to remember: to convert daily volatility to annual volatility, simply multiply the daily volatility value by the square root of time.

Similarly, to convert annual volatility to daily volatility, divide it by the square root of time.

So, we’ve estimated the daily volatility in this situation, and now we need WIPRO’s annual volatility. We’ll do the same thing here –

  • Daily Volatility = 1.47%
  • Time = 252
  • Annual Volatility = 1.47% * SQRT (252)
  • = 23.33%

In fact, I have calculated the same in excel, have a look at the image below –

learning sharks

As a result, we know that WIPRO’s daily volatility is 1.47 percent and its annual volatility is approximately 23 percent.

Let’s compare these figures to what the NSE has published on its website. The NSE only discloses these figures for F&O stocks and not for other stocks. Here is a screenshot of the same –

learning sharks

Our figure is very close to what the NSE has computed – according to the NSE, Wipro’s daily volatility is roughly 1.34 percent and its annualized volatility is about 25.5 percent.

So, what’s the deal with the minor discrepancy between our calculation and NSEs? – One probable explanation is that we use spot prices while the NSE uses futures prices. However, I’m not interested in delving into why this minor discrepancy exists. The goal here is to understand how to calculate the volatility of a security based on its daily returns.

Let us conduct one more calculation before we finish this chapter. If we know the annual volatility of WIPRO is 25.5 percent, how can we calculate its daily volatility?

As previously stated, to convert yearly volatility to daily volatility, simply divide the annual volatility by the square root of time, resulting in –

= 25.5% / SQRT (252)

= 1.60%

So far, we’ve learned what volatility is and how to calculate it. The practical use of volatility will be discussed in the following chapter.

Remember that we are still learning about volatility; however, the ultimate goal is to comprehend what the options Greek Vega signifies. Please don’t lose sight of our ultimate goal.

Background

We discussed previously the range within which the Nifty is likely to move given its yearly volatility. We estimated an upper and lower end range for Nifty and decided that it is likely to move inside that range.

Okay, but how certain are we about this? Is it possible that the Nifty will trade outside of this range? If so, what is the likelihood that it will trade outside of the range, and what is the likelihood that it will trade within the range? What are the values of the outside range if one exists?

Finding answers to these issues is critical for a number of reasons. If nothing else, it will create the groundwork for a quantitative approach to markets that is considerably distinct from the traditional fundamental and technical analysis thought processes.

So let us delve a little deeper to get our solutions.

Random Walk

The discussion that is about to begin is extremely important and highly pertinent to the matter at hand, as well as extremely interesting.

Consider the image below –

What you’re looking at is known as a ‘Galton Board.’ A Galton Board is a board with pins adhered to it. Collecting bins are located directly behind these pins.

The goal is to drop a little ball above the pins. When you drop the ball, it hits the first pin, after which it can either turn left or right before hitting another pin. The same method is repeated until the ball falls into one of the bins below.

Please keep in mind that once you drop the ball from the top, you will be unable to control its route until it lands in one of the bins. The ball’s course is fully spontaneous and not planned or regulated. Because of this, the path that the ball takes is known as the ‘Random Walk.’

Can you image what would happen if you dropped dozens of these balls one after the other? Each ball will obviously take a random walk before falling into one of the containers. What are your thoughts on the distribution of these balls in the bins?

  1. Will they all be grouped together? or
  2. Will they be spread evenly across the bins? or
  3. Will they fall into the various bins at random?

People who are unfamiliar with this experiment may be tempted to believe that the balls fall randomly across numerous bins and do not follow any particular pattern. But this does not occur; there appears to order here.

Consider the image below –

When you drop multiple balls on the Galton Board, each one taking a random walk, they all appear to be dispersed in the same way –

  1. The majority of the balls end up in the middle bin.
  2. There are fewer balls as you travel away from the middle bin (to the left or right).
  3. There are very few balls in the bins at the extreme ends.

This type of distribution is known as the “Normal Distribution.” You may have heard of the bell curve in school; it is nothing more than the normal distribution. The best aspect is that no matter how many times you perform this experiment, the balls will always be spread in a normal distribution.

This is a highly popular experiment known as the Galton Board experiment; I strongly advise you to watch this wonderful video to better comprehend this debate –

So, why are we talking about the Galton Board experiment and the Normal Distribution?

In reality, many things follow this natural sequence. As an example,

Collect a group of adults and weigh them – Separate the weights into bins (call them weight bins) such as 40kgs to 50kgs, 50kgs to 60kgs, 60kgs to 70kgs, and so on. Counting the number of people in each bin yields a normal distribution.

  1. If you repeat the experiment with people’s heights, you will get a normal distribution.
  2. With people’s shoe sizes, you’ll get a Normal Distribution.
  3. Fruit and vegetable weight
  4. Commute time on a specific route
  5. Lifetime of batteries

This list might go on and on, but I’d want to direct your attention to one more fascinating variable that follows the normal distribution – a stock’s daily returns!

The daily returns of a stock or an index cannot be forecast, which means that if you ask me what the return on TCS will be tomorrow, I will be unable to tell you; this is more akin to the random walk that the ball takes. However, if I collect the daily returns of the stock over a specific time period and examine the distribution of these returns, I can see a normal distribution, also known as the bell curve!

To emphasise this point, I plotted the distribution of daily returns for the following stocks/indices –

  • Nifty (index)
  • Bank Nifty ( index)
  • TCS (large cap)
  • Cipla (large cap)
  • Kitex Garments (small cap)
  • Astral Poly (small cap)

Normal Distribution

I believe the following explanation may be a little daunting for someone who is learning about normal distribution for the first time. So here’s what I’ll do: I’ll explain the concept of normal distribution, apply it to the Galton board experiment, and then extrapolate it to the stock market. I hope this helps you understand the gist better.

So, in addition to the Normal Distribution, different distributions can be used to distribute data. Different data sets are distributed statistically in different ways. Other data distribution patterns include binomial distribution, uniform distribution, Poisson distribution, chi-square distribution, and so on. Among the other distributions, the normal distribution pattern is arguably the most extensively studied and researched.

The normal distribution contains a number of qualities that aid in the development of insights into the data set. The normal distribution curve can be fully defined by two numbers: the mean (average) and standard deviation of the distribution.

The mean is the core value in which the highest values are clustered. This is the distribution’s average value. In the Galton board experiment, for example, the mean is the bin with the most balls in it.

So, if I number the bins from left to right as 1, 2, 3…all the way up to 9, the 5th bin (indicated by a red arrow) is the ‘average’ bin. Using the average bin as a guide, the data is distributed on either side of the average reference value. The standard deviation measures how the data is spread out (also known as dispersion) (recollect this also happens to be the volatility in the stock market context).

Here’s something you should know: when someone mentions ‘Standard Deviation (SD),’ they’re usually referring to the first SD. Similarly, there is a second standard deviation (2SD), a third standard deviation (SD), and so on. So when I say SD, I’m just referring to the standard deviation value; 2SD would be twice the SD value, 3SD would be three times the SD value, and so on.

Assume that in the Galton Board experiment, the SD is 1 and the average is 5. Then,

  • 1 SD would encompass bins between 4th bin (5 – 1 ) and 6th bin (5 + 1). This is 1 bin to the left and 1 bin to the right of the average bin
  • 2 SD would encompass bins between 3rd bin (5 – 2*1) and 7th bin (5 + 2*1)
  • 3 SD would encompass bins between 2nd bin (5 – 3*1) and 8th bin (5 + 3*1)

Keeping the preceding in mind, below is the broad theory surrounding the normal distribution that you should be familiar with –

  • Within the 1st standard deviation,
  • one can observe 68% of the data
  • Within the 2nd standard deviation, one can observe 95% of the data
  • Within the 3rd standard deviation, one can observe 99.7% of the data

The following image should help you visualize the above –

 

Using this to apply to the Galton board experiment –

 

  1. We can see that 68 percent of balls are collected within the first standard deviation, or between the fourth and sixth bins.
  2. We can see that 95 percent of balls are collected within the 2nd standard deviation, or between the 3rd and 7th bins.
  3. Within the third standard deviation, or between the second and eighth bins, 99.7 percent of balls are gathered.

 

Keeping the above in mind, imagine you are ready to drop a ball on the Galton board and we are both having a chat –

 

You – I’m about to throw a ball; can you guess which bin it will land in?

 

Me – No, I can’t since each ball moves at random. However, I can guess the range of bins it could fall into.

 

Can you forecast the range?

 

Me – I believe the ball will land between the fourth and sixth bins.

 

You – How certain are you about this?

 

Me-  I’m 68 percent certain it’ll fall somewhere between the fourth and sixth bins.

 

You – Well, 68 percent accuracy is a little low; can you predict the range with higher precision?

 

Me – Of course. I’m 95 percent certain that the ball will land in the third and seventh bins. If you want even more precision, I’d say the ball is most likely to land between the second and eighth bins, and I’m 99.5 percent certain of this.

 

You – Does it mean the ball has no chance of landing in the first or tenth bin?

 

Me – Well, there is a potential that the ball will land in one of the bins outside the third SD bins, but it is quite unlikely.

 

You – How low?

 

Me – The chances are about as slim as seeing a ‘Black Swan’ in a river. In terms of probability, the possibility is less than 0.5 percent.

 

You – Tell me more about the Black Swan

 

Me – Black Swan ‘events,’ as they are known, are events with a low likelihood of occurrence (such as the ball landing in the first or tenth bin). However, one should be aware that black swan events have a non-zero probability and can occur – when and how is difficult to anticipate. The image below depicts the occurrence of a black swan event –

 

There are many balls dropped in the above image, yet only a few of them collect at the extreme ends.

 

Normal Distribution and stock returns

Hopefully, the above explanation provided you with a brief overview of the normal distribution. The reason we’re discussing normal distribution is that the daily returns of stocks/indices also form a bell curve or a normal distribution. This suggests that if we know the mean and standard deviation of the stock return, we can have a better understanding of the stock’s return behaviour or dispersion. Let us examine the case of Nifty for the purposes of this debate.

 

To begin, the distribution of Nifty daily returns is as follows:

 

learning sharks

 

The daily returns, as we can see, are plainly distributed normally. For this distribution, I computed the average and standard deviation (in case you are wondering how to calculate the same, please do refer to the previous chapter). Remember that in order to get these figures, we must first compute the log daily returns.

 

  • Daily Average / Mean = 0.04%
  • Daily Standard Deviation / Volatility = 1.046%
  • The current market price of Nifty = 8337

Take note that an average of 0.04 percent shows that the nifty’s daily returns are concentrated at 0.04 percent. Now, keeping this knowledge in mind, let us compute the following:

 

  • The range within which Nifty is likely to trade in the next 1 year
  • The range within which Nifty is likely to trade over the next 30 days.

We will use 1 and 2 standard deviations meaning with 68 and 95 percent confidence for the computations above.

 

Solution 1 – (Nifty’s range for the next 1 year)

 

Average = 0.04%


SD = 1.046%

 

Let us convert this to annualized numbers –

 

Average = 0.04*252 = 9.66%


SD = 1.046% * Sqrt (252) = 16.61%

 

So with 68% confidence, I can say that the value of Nifty is likely to be in the range of –

 

= Average + 1 SD (Upper Range) and Average – 1 SD (Lower Range)


= 9.66% + 16.61% = 26.66%


= 9.66% – 16.61% = -6.95%

 

Because we computed this on log daily returns, these percent are log percentages, therefore we need to convert them back to regular percent, which we can do straight and get the range number (in relation to Nifty’s CMP of 8337) –

Upper Range


= 8337 *exponential (26.66%)


10841

 

And for lower range –

 

= 8337 * exponential (-6.95%)


7777

 

According to the foregoing forecast, the Nifty will most likely trade between 7777 and 10841. How certain am I about this? – As you know, I’m 68 percent certain about this.

 

Let’s raise the confidence level to 95% or the 2nd standard deviation and see what we get –

 

Average + 2 SD (Upper Range) and Average – 2 SD (Lower Range)


= 9.66% + 2* 16.61% = 42.87%


= 9.66% – 2* 16.61% = -23.56%

 

Hence the range works out to –

 

Upper Range


= 8337 *exponential (42.87%)


12800

 

And for lower range –

 

= 8337 * exponential

 

(-23.56%)

 

6587

 

The following computation implies that, with 95 percent certainty, the Nifty will move between 6587 and 12800 over the next year. Also, as you can see, when we seek higher accuracy, the range expands significantly.

 

I’d recommend repeating the task with 99.7 percent confidence or 3SD and seeing what kind of range figures you obtain.

 

Now, supposing you calculate Nifty’s range at 3SD level and get the lower range value of Nifty as 5000 (I’m just stating this as a placeholder number here), does this mean Nifty cannot go below 5000? It absolutely can, but the chances of it falling below 5000 are slim, and if it does, it will be considered a black swan occurrence. You can make the same case for the top end of the range.

 

Solution 2 – (Nifty’s range for next 30 days)

 

We know the daily mean and SD –

 

Average = 0.04%


SD = 1.046%

 

Because we want to calculate the range for the next 30 days, we must convert it for the appropriate time period –

 

Average = 0.04% * 30 = 1.15%


SD = 1.046% * sqrt (30) =

 

5.73%

 

So I can state with 68 percent certainty that the value of the Nifty during the next 30 days will be in the range of –

 

= Average + 1 SD (Upper Range) and Average – 1 SD (Lower Range)
= 1.15% + 5.73% = 6.88%
= 1.15% – 5.73% = – 4.58%

 

Because these are log percentages, we must convert them to ordinary percentages; we can do so right away and get the range value (in respect to the Nifty’s CMP of 8337) –

 

= 8337 *exponential (6.88%)


8930

 

And for lower range –

 

= 8337 * exponential (-4.58%)


7963

 

With a 68 percent confidence level, the above computation implies that Nifty will trade between 8930 and 7963 in the next 30 days.

 

Let’s raise the confidence level to 95% or the 2nd standard deviation and see what we get –

 

Average + 2 SD (Upper Range) and Average – 2 SD (Lower Range)


= 1.15% + 2* 5.73% = 12.61%


= 1.15% – 2* 5.73% = -10.31%

 

Hence the range works out to –

 

= 8337 *exponential (12.61%)


9457 (Upper Range)

 

And for lower range –

 

= 8337 * exponential (-10.31%)


7520

 

I hope the calculations above are clear to you. You may also download the MS Excel spreadsheet that I used to perform these computations.

 

Of course, you have a legitimate point at this point – normal distribution is fine – but how do I receive the information to trade? As a result, I believe this chapter is sufficiently long to accept further notions. As a result, we’ll transfer the application section to the next chapter. In the following chapter, we will look at the applications of standard deviation (volatility) and how they relate to trading. In the following chapter, we will go over two crucial topics: (1) how to choose strikes that can be sold/written using normal distribution and (2) how to set up stoploss using volatility.

 

Striking it right

The previous chapters have provided a basic understanding of volatility, standard deviation, normal distribution, and so on. We will now apply this knowledge to a few practical trading applications. At this point, I’d want to examine two such applications:

  1. Choosing the best strike to short/write
  2. Calculating a trade’s stop loss

However, at a much later stage (in a separate module), we will investigate the applications under a new topic – ‘Relative value Arbitrage (Pair Trading) and Volatility Arbitrage’. For the time being, we will only trade options and futures.

 

So let’s get this party started.

 

One of the most difficult problems for an option writer is choosing the right strike so that he may write the option, collect the premium, and not be concerned about the potential of the spot shifting against him. Of course, the risk of spot moving against the option writer will always present, but a careful trader can mitigate this risk.

 

Normal Distribution assists the trader in reducing this concern and increasing his confidence while writing options.

 

Let us quickly review –

 

learning sharks

 

According to the bell curve above, with reference to the mean (average) value –

 

  1. 68 percent of the data is clustered around the mean within the first SD, implying that the data has a 68 percent chance of being within the first SD.
  2. 95 percent of the data is clustered around the mean within the 2nd SD, which means that the data has a 95 percent chance of being within the 2nd SD.
  3. 99.7 percent of the data is clustered around the mean inside the third standard deviation, which means that there is a 99.7 percent chance that the data is within the third standard deviation.

Because we know that Nifty’s daily returns are typically distributed, the qualities listed above apply to Nifty. So, what does this all mean?

 

This means that if we know Nifty’s mean and standard deviation, we can make a ‘informed guess’ about the range in which Nifty is expected to move throughout the chosen time frame. Consider the following:

 

  • Date = 11th August 2015
  • Number of days for expiry = 16
  • Nifty current market price = 8462
  • Daily Average Return = 0.04%
  • Annualized Return = 14.8%
  • Daily SD = 0.89%
  • Annualized SD = 17.04%

Given this, I’d like to identify the range within which Nifty will trade till expiry, which is in 16 days –

 

16 day SD = Daily SD *SQRT (16)


= 0.89% * SQRT (16)


3.567%


16 day average = Daily Avg * 16


= 0.04% * 16 = 0.65%

 

These numbers will help us calculate the upper and lower range within which Nifty is likely to trade over the next 16 days –

 

Upper Range = 16 day Average + 16 day SD

 

= 0.65% + 3.567%

 

= 4.215%, to get the upper range number –

 

= 8462 * (1+4.215%)

 

8818

 

Lower Range = 16 day Average – 16 day SD

 

= 0.65% – 3.567%

 

= 2.920% to get the lower range number –

 

= 8462 * (1 – 2.920%)

 

8214

 

According to the calculations, the Nifty will most likely trade between 8214 and 8818. How certain are we about this? We know that there is a 68 percent chance that this computation will work in our favour. In other words, there is a 32% possibility that the Nifty will trade outside of the 8214-8818 range. This also implies that any strikes outside of the predicted range may be useless.

 

Hence –

 

  1. Because all call options over 8818 are expected to expire worthlessly, you can sell them and receive the premiums.
  2. Because they are likely to expire worthlessly, you can sell all put options below 8214 and receive the premiums.

Alternatively, if you were considering purchasing Call options above 8818 or Put options below 8214, you should reconsider because you now know that there is a very small possibility that these options would expire in the money, therefore it makes sense to avoid purchasing these strikes.

 

Here is a list of all Nifty Call option strikes above 8818 on which you can write (short) and get premiums –

 

learning sharks

 

If I had to choose a strike today, it would be either 8850 or 8900, or possibly both, for a premium of Rs.7.45 and Rs.4.85 respectively. The reason I chose these strikes is straightforward: I saw a fair balance of danger (1 SD away) and return (7.45 or 4.85 per lot).

 

I’m sure many of you have had this thought: if I write the 8850 Call option and earn Rs.7.45 as premium, it doesn’t really translate to anything useful. After all, at Rs.7.45 for each lot, that works out to –

 

= 7.45 * 25 (lot size)

 

= Rs.186.25

 

This is precisely where many traders lose the plot. Many people I know consider gains and losses in terms of absolute value rather than return on investment.

 

Consider this: the margin required to enter this trade is approximate Rs.12,000/-. If you are unsure about the margin need, I recommend using Zerodha’s margin calculator.

 

The premium of Rs.186.25/- on a margin deposit of Rs.12,000/- comes out to a return of 1.55 percent, which is not a terrible return by any stretch of the imagination, especially for a 16-day holding period! If you can regularly achieve this every month, you may earn a return of more than 18% annualized solely through option writing.

 

I use this method to develop options and would like to share some of my ideas on it –

 

Put Options – I don’t like to short PUT options since panic spreads faster than greed. If there is market panic, the market can tumble considerably faster than you would think. As a result, even before you realise it, the OTM option you wrote may soon become ATM or ITM. As a result, it is preferable to avoid than to regret.

 

Call Options – If you reverse the preceding statement, you will realise why writing call options is preferable to writing put options. In the Nifty example above, for the 8900 CE to become ATM or ITM, the Nifty must move 438 points in 16 days. This requires excessive greed in the market…and as I previously stated, a 438 up move takes slightly longer than a 438 down move. As a result, I prefer to short solely call options.

 

Strike identification – I perform the entire operation of identifying the strike (SD, mean calculation, translating the same in relation to the number of days to expiry, picking the appropriate strike just the week before expiry and not earlier). The timing is deliberate.

 

Timing – I only sell options on the last Friday before the expiry week. Given that the August 2015 series expiry is on the 27th, I’d short the call option only on the 21st of August, around the closing. Why am I doing this? This is mostly to make sure theta works in my advantage. Remember the ‘time decay’ graph from the theta chapter? The graph clearly shows that when we approach expiry, theta kicks in full force.

 

Premium Collected – Because I write call options so close to expiration, the premiums are always cheap. On the Nifty Index, the premium I get is roughly Rs.5 or 6, equating to a 1.0 percent return. But, for two reasons, I find the trade rather reassuring. (1) To have the trade operate against me (2) Theta works in my favour because premiums erode significantly faster during the last week of expiry, which benefits the option seller.

 

– Why bother? Most of you may be thinking, “With premiums this low, why should I bother?” To be honest, I had the same impression at first, however over time I understood that deals with the following criteria make sense to me –

 

  1. Risk and reward should be visible and quantifiable.
  2. If a transaction is profitable today, I should be able to reproduce it tomorrow.
  3. Consistency in identifying opportunities
  4. Worst-case scenario analysis

This technique meets all of the criteria listed above, hence it is my preferred option.

 

SD consideration – When I’m writing options 3-4 days before expiry, I prefer to write one SD away, but when I’m writing options much earlier, I prefer to go two SD away. Remember that the greater the SD consideration, the better your confidence level, but the lesser the premium you can receive. Also, as a general rule, I never write options that expire in more than 15 days.

 

Events – I avoid writing options when there are significant market events such as monetary policy, policy decisions, company announcements, and so on. This is due to the fact that markets tend to respond swiftly to events, and so there is a considerable probability of being caught on the wrong side. As a result, it is preferable to be safe than sorry.

 

Black Swan – I’m fully aware that, despite my best efforts, markets can shift against me and I could find myself on the wrong side. The cost of being caught on the wrong side, especially in this transaction, is high. Assume you receive 5 or 6 points as a premium but are caught on the wrong side and must pay 15 or 20 points or more. So you gave away all of the tiny gains you made over the previous 9 to 10 months in one month. In fact, the famous Satyajit Das describes option writing as “eating like a bird but pooping like an elephant” in his extremely incisive book “Traders, Guns, and Money.”

 

The only way to ensure that you limit the impact of a black swan occurrence is to be fully aware that it can occur at any point after you write the option. So, if you decide to pursue this technique, my recommendation is to keep an eye on the markets and evaluate market sentiment at all times. Exit the deal as soon as you see something is incorrect.

 

Option writing puts you on the edge of your seat in terms of success ratio. There are moments when it appears that markets are working against you (fear of a black swan), but this only lasts a short time. Such roller coaster sentiments are unavoidable when writing options. The worst aspect is that you may be forced to believe that the market is going against you (false signal) and hence exit a potentially profitable trade during this roller coaster ride.

 

In addition, I exit the transaction when the option moves from OTM to ATM.

 

Expenses – The key to these trades is to minimise your expenses to a minimal minimum in order to keep as much profit as possible for yourself. Brokerage and other fees are included in the costs. If you sell one lot of Nifty options and get Rs.7 as a premium, you will have to give up a few points as profit. If you trade with Zerodha, your cost per lot will be about 1.95. The greater the number of lots, the lower your cost. So, if I traded 10 lots (with Zerodha) instead of one, my expense drops to 0.3 points. To find out more, try Zerodha’s brokerage calculator.

 

The cost varies from broker to broker, so be sure your broker is not being greedy by charging you exorbitant brokerage fees. Even better, if you are not already a member of Zerodha, now is the moment to join us and become a part of our wonderful family.

 

Allocation of Capital – At this point, you may be wondering, “How much money do I put into this trade?” Do I put all of my money at danger or only a portion of it? How much would it be if it’s a percentage? Because there is no simple answer, I’ll use this opportunity to reveal my asset allocation strategy.

 

Because I am a firm believer in equities as an asset class, I cannot invest in gold, fixed deposits, or real estate. My whole money (savings) is invested in equities and equity-related items. Any individual should, however, diversify their capital across several asset types.

 

So, within Equity, here’s how I divided my money:

 

  1. My money is invested in equity-based mutual funds through the SIP (systematic investment plan) route to the tune of 35%. This has been further divided into four funds.
  2. 40% of my capital is invested in an equity portfolio of roughly 12 stocks. Long-term investments for me include mutual funds and an equity portfolio (5 years and beyond).
  3. Short-term initiatives will receive 25% of the budget.

The short-term strategies include a bunch of trading strategies such as –

  • Momentum-based swing trades (futures)
  • Overnight futures/options/stock trades
  • Intraday trades
  • Option writing

 

I make certain that I do not expose more than 35% of my total money to any single technique. To clarify, if I had Rs.500,000/- as my starting capital, here is how I would divide it:

  • 35% of Rs.500,000/- i.e Rs.175,000/- goes to Mutual Funds
  • 40% of Rs.500,000/- i.e Rs.200,000/- goes to equity portfolio
  • 25% of Rs.500,000/- i.e Rs.125,000/- goes to short term trading
  • 35% of Rs.125,000/- i.e Rs.43,750/- is the maximum I would allocate per trade
  • Hence I will not be

 

So this self-mandated rule ensures that I do not expose more than 9% of my overall capital to any particular short-term strategies including option writing.

 

Instruments – I prefer running this strategy on liquid stocks and indices. Besides Nifty and Bank Nifty, I run this strategy on SBI, Infosys, Reliance, Tata Steel, Tata Motors, and TCS. I rarely venture outside this list.

 

So here’s what I’d advise you to do. Calculate the SD and mean for Nifty and Bank Nifty on the morning of August 21st (5 to 7 days before expiry). Find strikes that are one standard deviation away from the market price and write them digitally. Wait till the trade expires to see how it happens. If you have the necessary bandwidth, you can run this over all of the stocks I’ve highlighted. Perform this diligently for a few expiries before deploying funds.

 

Finally, as a typical caveat, the concepts mentioned here suit my risk-reward temperament, which may differ greatly from yours. Everything I’ve said here is based on my own personal trading experience, these are not standard practices.

 

I recommend that you take notice of these points, as well as understand your personal risk-reward temperament and calibrate your plan. Hopefully, the suggestions above may assist you in developing that orientation.

 

This is directly contradictory to the topic of this chapter, but I must recommend that you read Nassim Nicholas Taleb’s “Fooled by Randomness” at this point. The book forces you to evaluate and reconsider everything you do in marketplaces (and life in general). I believe that simply being conscious of what Taleb writes in his book, as well as the actions you do in markets, puts you in an entirely different orbit.

 

Volatility based stoploss

 

This is a departure from Options, and it would have been more appropriate in the futures trading module, but I believe we are in the appropriate position to examine it.

 

The first thing you should do before starting any trade is to choose the stop-loss (SL) price. The SL, as you may know, is a price threshold beyond which you will not take any further losses. For example, if you buy Nifty futures at 8300, you may set a stop-loss threshold of 8200; you will be risking 100 points on this trade. When the Nifty falls below 8200, you exit the trade and take a loss. The challenge is, however, how to determine the right stop-loss level.

 

Many traders follow a typical technique in which they keep a fixed % stop-loss. For example, on each transaction, a 2% stop-loss could be used. So, if you buy a stock at Rs.500, your stop-loss price is Rs.490, and your risk on this transaction is Rs.10 (2 percent of Rs.500). The issue with this method is the practice’s rigidity. It does not take into account the stock’s daily noise or volatility. For example, the nature of the stock could cause it to fluctuate by 2-3% on a daily basis. As a result, you may be correct about the direction of the transaction but still hit stop-loss.’ Keeping such tight stops will almost always be a mistake.

 

Estimating the stock’s volatility is an alternative and effective way for determining a stop-loss price. The daily ‘anticipated’ movement in the stock price is accounted for by volatility. The advantage of this technique is that the stock’s daily noise is taken into account. The volatility stop is crucial because it allows us to establish a stop at a price point that is outside of the stock’s regular expected volatility. As a result, a volatility SL provides us with the necessary rational exit if the transaction goes against us.

 

Let’s look at an example of how the volatility-based SL is implemented.

 

learning sharks

 

This is the chart of Airtel creating a bullish harami; those familiar with the pattern would recognise this as a chance to go long on the stock, using the previous day’s low (also support) as the stoploss. The immediate resistance would be the aim – both S&R sites are shown with a blue line. Assume you expect the trade to be completed during the next five trading sessions. The following are the trade specifics:

  • Long @ 395
  • Stop-loss @ 385
  • Target @ 417
  • Risk = 395 – 385 = 10 or about 2.5% below entry price
  • Reward = 417 – 385 = 32 or about 8.1% above entry price
  • Reward to Risk Ratio = 32/10 = 3.2 meaning for every 1 point risk, the expected reward is 3.2 point

 

From a risk-to-reward standpoint, this appears to be a smart trade. In fact, I consider any short-term transaction with a Reward to Risk Ratio of 1.5 to be a good trade. Everything, however, is dependent on the assumption that the stoploss of 385 is reasonable.

 

Let us run some numbers and delve a little more to see if this makes sense –

 

Step 1: Calculate Airtel’s daily volatility. I did the arithmetic, and the daily volatility is 1.8 percent.

 

Step 2: Convert daily volatility to volatility of the time period of interest. This is accomplished by multiplying the daily volatility by the square root of time. In our example, the predicted holding period is 5 days, hence the volatility is 1.8 percent *Sqrt (5). This equates to approximately 4.01 percent.

 

Step 3: Subtract 4.01 percent (5 day volatility) from the predicted entry price to calculate the stop-loss price. 379 = 395 – (4.01 percent of 395) According to the aforesaid calculation, Airtel can easily move from 395 to 379 in the next 5 days. This also implies that a stoploss of 385 can be readily overcome. So the stop loss for this trade must be a price point lower than 379, say 375, which is 20 points lower than the entry price of 395.

 

 

Step 4: With the updated SL, the RRR is 1.6 (32/20), which is still acceptable to me. As a result, I would be delighted to start the trade.

 

Note that if our predicted holding duration is 10 days, the volatility will be 1.6*sqrt(10), and so on.

 

The daily movement of stock prices is not taken into account with a fixed % stop-loss. There is a good risk that the trader places a premature stop-loss, well within the stock’s noise levels. This invariably results in the stop-loss being hit first, followed by the target.

 

Volatility-based stop-loss accounts for all daily predicted fluctuations in stock prices. As a result, if we use stock volatility to set our stop-loss, we are factoring in the noise component and so setting a more relevant stop loss.

 

 

Difference Between NISM and NCFM

The NCFM stands for NSE Certification in Financial Market India. Students who take this course will be able to get knowledge of mutual funds, financial markets, equities research, capital markets, and currency derivatives. NISM, on the other hand, is an abbreviation for the National Institute of Securities Market, which is part of the Securities Exchange Board of India.

The NCFM and NISM certifications provide courses for applicants interested in expanding and structuring their careers in the stock market, derivatives, the mutual funds industry, and the general public who wish to learn more about the financial market.

What is NCFM (National Stock Exchange) Financial Markets Certification?

It may appear terrible to you, but it is not as frightening as it appears. The NSE established NCFM as an institute to create trained human resources with expertise in certain market segments and the industry to guide market participants.

Many certifications are held under the NCFM title to educate people working in the financial sector to follow the code of conduct established by the regulator, the SEBI (Stock Exchange Board of India), as well as to acquire the necessary skills and ability to understand the workings of the system and guide the audiences accordingly. The NCFM values human competence over technology, believing that the individual providing sales and service in the sector should be knowledgeable.

What is NISM (National Institute of Securities Markets)?

The NISM is an Indian public trust that develops and improves financial education for those working in the finance industry in order to maintain a financial literacy standard. The SEBI, the regulator, established this institute in 2006.

The NISM improves quality by starting educational programmes for industry participants. An international advisory group provides strategic guidance. NISM is made up of six separate schools offering various certificates.

They are named below: –

  1. School for Investor Education and Financial Literacy (SIEFL)
  2. School for Certification of Intermediaries (SCI)
  3. School for Securities Information and Research (SSIR)
  4. School for Regulatory Studies and Supervision (SRSS)
  5. School for Corporate Governance (SCG)
  6. School for Securities Education (SSE)

These schools educate persons who buy and sell assets in the securities market, as well as those hired directly or indirectly by financial institutions, as well as those engaged in securities market research and market supervision, such as ministers and officers.

It also holds corporate governance training and conferences. The goal of this institute is to provide education in accordance with the framework, objective, and vision of NISM in order to prepare competent professionals capable of serving the security markets.

NCFM vs NISM Infographics

Source: wallstreetmojo

NISM vs NCFM Exam Requirements

NISM Prerequisite

To apply for any NISM certificate, you must first complete out the online registration form on their website.
Fill out the enrollment form to enrol in the certification of your choosing.
The examination must be taken within 180 days following enrolment.
Following that, you can select the examination centre and slot that are offered online.
Students should use internet study materials to prepare for the examination. Following that, an online exam must be administered, with the results announced once the exam is completed.

NCFM is required

Register for this course online and reserve a slot for a convenient date and time.
The training materials can be downloaded online or ordered from the institute.
Different exams have different passing percentages that must be met. Some tests feature negative indications as well.
You will be a qualified professional if you pass the online examination with the required passing percentage.

Comparative Table

Section NCFM NISM
Institution Created By NCFM is created by the NSE – The National Stock Exchange. The regulator, SEBI, makes NISM.
The number of Modules NCFM has over 50 modules with foundations, intermediate, and advanced modules. NISM has over 15 different courses and modules.
Mode of Examination The NCFM provides online tests. The NISM tests are all online.
Exam Window The NCFM examination windows are open for candidates to book their seats at their convenience. The NISM examination windows are available for candidates to reserve their seats at their convenience.
Subjects The NCFM covers trading, mutual funds, currency derivatives, interest rates, banking, etc. The NISM covers interest rate derivatives, currency derivatives, depository operations, mutual funds foundation, etc.
Pass Percentage The NCFM passing percentage depends on the module you choose to appear for. Mostly the passing rate is between 50% to 60%; however, some examinations have negative markings. The NISM passing percentage depends on the module you choose to appear for. Mostly the passing rate is between 50% to 60%; however, some examinations have negative markings.
Fees The fee structure for the NCFM modules is priced at ₹
1,500/- is revised to ₹
1,700/- and taxes with effect from April 1, 2017.
Most NISM certifications are below ₹ 2,000; however, several cost higher than ₹ 10,000.
Job Opportunites/Job Titles The NCFM job opportunities differ depending on your earned certificate. The NISM job opportunities vary depending on the certificate you earned.

Important differences

  • The NCFM course was developed by the National Stock Exchange or NSE. The NISM course was developed by the Securities Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
  • Currency derivatives, banking, interest rates, trading, and mutual funds are among the topics covered by the NCFM. Currency derivatives, mutual fund foundation, depository activities, and interest rate derivatives are among the issues covered by the NISM.
  • An NCFM degree qualifies a candidate for the positions of trader, financial market consultant, stockbroker, dealer, analyst, and investor. A candidate with a NISM degree can apply for jobs as a banker, stockbroker, or securities market analyst.
  • The major goal of the NCFM course is to provide professionals with information, abilities, and expertise in comprehending essential financial sector features such as interest rates, currency derivatives, and so on. The NCFM course adds value to professionals’ jobs because no official training is currently available on the ever-changing dynamics of the financial business.

The National Institute of Securities Market NISM course, on the other hand, is designed to provide financial education and financial literacy to players in the financial sector. In other words, NISM focuses on providing financial market professionals with a deep understanding of the dynamics of ever-changing financial needs.

Why pursue NCFM?

The NCFM certification focuses on important areas of the financial sector; its primary goal is to provide knowledge and skills to financial industry professionals. Because there is no formal schooling or training for financial markets in India, these sector certifications for diverse fields are quite valuable in adding value to a profession.

NCFM has developed with a diverse set of qualifications, specialities, and orientations in all facets of the sector. Furthermore, the entire testing and scoring process for the evaluations is automated. These assessments are significant because they assess the candidate’s ability, practical knowledge, and skill in operating and performing in the financial market.

Why pursue NISM?

In the greatest interests of investors, the SEBI founded the NISM institute and guided individuals working in and throughout the business in learning and understanding financial markets.

The primary goal of this institute is to provide financial literacy and financial education to market participants. SEBI aims to improve the financial market’s quality by launching quality financial education.

Theta

Time is money

Remember the proverb “Time is money?” It appears that this adage about time is really significant when it comes to options trading. For the time being, set aside all of the Greek jargon and return to a fundamental understanding of time. Assume you have registered for a competitive exam; you are an innately intelligent candidate with the ability to pass the exam; nevertheless, if you do not give it enough time and brush up on the ideas, you are likely to fail the exam; given this, what is the possibility that you will pass this exam? It all depends on how much time you spend studying for the exam, right? Let us put this in perspective and calculate the likelihood of passing the exam versus the time spent preparing for it.

Number of days for preparationLikelihood of passing
30 daysVery high
20 daysHigh
15 daysModerate
10 daysLow
5 daysVery low
1 dayUltra-low

 

Obviously, the more days you have to prepare, the more likely you are to pass the exam. Consider the following scenario while adhering to the same logic: If the Nifty Spot is 8500 and you buy a Nifty 8700 Call option, what is the probability that this call option will expire in the money (ITM)? Please allow me to rephrase this query –

 

  1. Given that the Nifty is currently at 8500, what is the possibility of the Nifty moving 200 points in the next 30 days, and thus the 8700 CE expiry ITM?
  2. The possibility of Nifty moving 200 points in the next 30 days is fairly high, hence the likelihood of an option expiring ITM at expiry is quite high.
  3. What if the time limit is only 15 days?
  4. Because it is fair to expect the Nifty to move 200 points over the following 15 days, the likelihood of an option expiring ITM at expiry is significant (notice it is not very high, but just high).
  5. What if the deadline is in 5 days?
  6. Well, 5 days, 200 points, not sure, therefore the probability of 8700 CE expiring in the money is low.
  7. What if you only had one day to live?
  8. The possibility of the Nifty moving 200 points in a single day is fairly low, so I would be reasonably convinced that the option would not expire in the money, so the chance is extremely low.

Is there anything we can deduce from the preceding? Clearly, the longer the period until expiry, the more likely the option will expire in the money (ITM). Keep this in mind when we move our attention to the ‘Option Seller.’ We understand that an option seller sells or writes an option and obtains a premium for it. When he sells an option, he is well aware that he is taking on an unlimited risk with a restricted profit possibility. The prize is only as large as the premium he receives. Only if the option expires worthless does he get to keep his entire payout (premium). Consider the following: – If he is selling an option early in the month, he is well aware of the following:

 

He is aware of his boundless risk and restricted profit possibilities.


He also understands that the option he is selling has a probability of converting into an ITM option, which means he will not be able to keep his payout (premium received)

 

In fact, because of ‘time,’ there is always the possibility that the option will expire in the money at any given point (although this chance gets lower and lower as time progresses towards the expiry date). Given this, why would an option seller want to sell options at all? After all, why would you want to sell options when you already know that the option you’re selling has a good chance of expiring in the money? Clearly, time is a risk in the context of option sellers. What if, in order to attract the option seller to sell options, the option buyer promises to compensate for the ‘time risk’ that he (the option seller) assumes?In such a circumstance, it seems reasonable to weigh the time risk versus the remuneration and make a decision, right? This is exactly what happens in real-world options trading. When you pay a premium for options, you are actually paying for –

  1. Time Risk
  2. The intrinsic value of options.

 

In other words, premium equals time value plus intrinsic value. Remember that we defined ‘Intrinsic Value’ earlier in this session as the money you would receive if you exercised your option today. To refresh your recollection, calculate the intrinsic value of the following options assuming the Nifty is at 8423 –

  1. 8350 CE
  2. 8450 CE
  3. 8400 PE
  4. 8450 PE

We know that the intrinsic value is always positive or zero and can never be less than zero. If the value is negative, the intrinsic value is regarded to be zero. We know that the fundamental value of Call options is “Spot Price – Strike Price” and that of Put options is “Strike Price – Spot Price.” As a result, the intrinsic values for the aforementioned choices are as follows:

  1. 8350 CE = 8423 – 8350 = +73
  2. 8450 CE = 8423 – 8450 = -ve value hence 0
  3. 8400 PE = 8400 – 8423 = -ve value hence 0
  4. 8450 PE = 8450 – 8423 = + 27

So, now that we know how to calculate an option’s intrinsic value, let us try to partition the premium and extract the time value and intrinsic value. Take a look at the following image –

 

learning sharks

Details to note are as follows –

  • Spot Value = 8531
  • Strike = 8600 CE
  • Status = OTM
  • Premium = 99.4
  • Today’s date = 6th July 2015
  • Expiry = 30th July 2015

Intrinsic value of a call option – Spot Price – Strike Price, i.e. 8531 – 8600 = 0 (due to the fact that it is a negative number) We already know that Premium = Time value + Intrinsic value. 99.4 + 0 = Time Value This means that the Time value is 99.4! Do you see what I mean? The market is willing to pay Rs.99.4/- for an option with no intrinsic value but plenty of temporal value! Remember that time is money. Here’s a look at the identical contract I signed the next day, July 7th –

learning sharks

 

The underlying value has increased somewhat (8538), while the option premium has reduced significantly! Let us divide the premium into its intrinsic and time values – Spot Price – Strike Price = 0 (since it is a negative value) We already know that Premium = Time value + Intrinsic value. 87.9 + 0 = Time Value This suggests that the Time value is 87.9! Have you seen the overnight decrease in premium value? We’ll find out why this happened soon. Note: In this example, the premium value decrease is 99.4 minus 87.9 = 11.5. This decrease is due to a decrease in volatility and time. In the following chapter, we shall discuss volatility.For the purpose of argument, assuming both volatility and spot remained constant, the decline in premium would be entirely due to time. This decline is likely to be around Rs.5 or so, rather than Rs.11.5/-. Consider another example:

 

learning sharks

 

  • Spot Value = 8514.5
  • Strike = 8450 CE
  • Status = ITM
  • Premium = 160
  • Today’s date = 7th July 2015
  • Expiry = 30th July 2015

We know – Premium = Time value + Intrinsic value 8514.5 – 8450 = 64.5 We know – Premium = Time value + Intrinsic value 160 = Time Value + 64.5 This means that the Time value is = 160 – 64.5 = 95.5. As a result, traders pay 64.5 percent of the total premium of Rs.160 for intrinsic value and 95.5 percent for time value. Repeat the computation for all options (calls and puts) and split the premium into time value and intrinsic value.

 

Movement of time

Time, as we know it, travels in just one way. Keep the expiry date as the objective time and consider the passage of time. Obviously, as time passes, the number of days till expiration decreases. Given this, let me ask you this question: If traders are willing to pay as much as Rs.100/- for time value with around 18 trading days to expiry, will they do the same if the time to expiry is only 5 days? Obviously, they would not, would they? With less time to expiry, traders will pay a lower price for time. In reality, here’s a snapshot from the previous months –

 

learning sharks

 

  • Date = 29th April
  • Expiry Date = 30th April
  • Time to expiry = 1 day
  • Strike = 190
  • Spot = 179.6
  • Premium = 30 Paisa
  • Intrinsic Value = 179.6 – 190 = 0 since it’s a negative value
  • Hence time value should be 30 paisa which equals the premium

With only one day till expiry, dealers are willing to pay a time value of 30 paise. However, if the period to expiry was more than 20 days, the time value would most likely be Rs.5 or Rs.8/-. The point I’m trying to make here is that as we approach closer to the expiry date, the time to expiry becomes less and shorter. This means that option buyers will be paying less and less for time value. So, if the option buyer pays Rs.10 as the time value today, he will most likely pay Rs.9.5/- as the time value tomorrow. This brings us to a critical conclusion: “All else being equal, an option is a depreciating asset.”The option’s premium depreciates on a daily basis, which is due to the passage of time.” The next natural issue is how much the premium would reduce on a daily basis due to the passage of time. Theta, the third option in Greek, can assist us answer this question.

 

Theta

As the expiration date approaches, the value of all options, including calls and puts, decreases. Theta, often known as the time decay factor, is the rate at which an option loses value over time. When all other factors remain constant, theta is stated as points lost per day. Because time moves in only one direction, theta is always a positive number; however, to remind traders that it represents a loss in option value, it is occasionally expressed as a negative number. A Theta of -0.5 suggests that the option premium will decrease by -0.5 points for each passing day. For example, if an option is trading at Rs.2.75/- with a theta of -0.05, it will trade the next day at Rs.2.70/- (provided other things are kept constant).A long option (option buyer) will always have a negative theta, which means that the option buyer will lose money on a daily basis, everything else being equal. Theta for a short option (option seller) will be positive. Theta is a pleasant Greek option seller. Remember that the option seller’s goal is to keep the premium. Given that options lose value on a daily basis, the option seller can benefit by keeping the premium until it loses value due to time. For example, if an option writer sells options at Rs.54 and a theta of 0.75, the identical option will most likely trade at – =0.75 * 3 = 2.25 = 54 – 2.25 = 51.75.As a result, the seller has the opportunity to terminate the position on T+ 3 day by purchasing it again at Rs.51.75/- and gaining Rs.2.25… and this is because of theta! Check out the graph below –

 

learning sharks

 

This graph depicts how the premium erodes as the expiry date approaches. This graph is also known as the ‘Time Decay’ graph. From the graph, we can see the following:

  1. The option loses little value in the beginning of the series, when there are several days till expiry. For example, when the option was 120 days away from expiry, it was trading at 350; yet, when the option was 100 days away from expiry, it was trading at 300. As a result, theta has little effect.
  2. As the series nears its end, theta has a strong influence. When there were 20 days to expiry, the option was trading around 150, but as we get closer to expiry, the loss in premium appears to increase (option value drops below 50).

So, if you sell options in the beginning of the series, you have the advantage of pocketing a huge premium value (because the time value is quite high), but keep in mind that the premium falls at a low pace. You can sell options closer to expiry for a reduced premium, but the premium decline is significant, which benefits the options seller. Theta is a simple and easy to comprehend Greek letter. We shall return to theta when we consider Greek cross-dependence. But, for the time being, if you understand everything that has been discussed here, you are ready to go. We will now proceed to comprehend the final and most intriguing Greek – Vega!

 

Conclusion

  1. Time risk is always paid for by option sellers.
  2. Intrinsic Value + Time Value Equals Premium
  3. All else being equal, options lose money every day because to Theta.
  4. Because time advances in only one direction, Theta is a positive number.
  5. Theta is a helpful Greek for option sellers.
  6. When you short naked options at the beginning of the series, you can pocket a significant time value, but the premium drop due to time is minimal.
  7. When you short an option near to expiry, the premium is low (because to time value), but the premium falls quickly.

NISM Certification Examinations preparation- fees, duration and validity

If you are planning to appear for the NISM certification exam. It is very important that you enrol yourself and prepare alongside. one can prepare him/her through mock tests provided by sites like prepcafe/passforsure. Learning sharks students have scored more than 90% in their exams. One can learn about the modules in our derivative course.

You can go through the list of exams with their duration, fees, max marks, no. of questions pass marks and certificate.

Sr.
No
NISM Exam Test Duration Fees (Rs) Maximum Marks No. of Questions Pass Mark (%) Negative Marks (%) Certificate Validity(in years)
1 NISM Series I: Currency Derivatives Certification Examination 2hrs 1500/- 100 100 60 25 3
2 NISM Series II A: Registrars and Transfer Agents (Corporate) Certification Examination 2hrs 1500/- 100 100 50 25 3
3 NISM Series II B: Registrars and Transfer Agents (Mutual Fund) Certification Examination 2hrs 1500/- 100 100 50 25 3
4 NISM Series-III-A: Securities Intermediaries Compliance (Non-Fund) Certification Examination 2hrs 1500/- 100 100 60 25 3
5 NISM Series-III-B: Issuers Compliance Certification Examination+ 2hrs 1770/- 100 100 60 25 3
6 NISM Series IV: Interest Rates Derivatives Certification Examination 2hrs 1500/- 100 100 60 25 3
7 NISM Series V A: Mutual Fund Distributors Certification Examination 2hrs 1500/- 100 100 50 3
8 NISM-Series­V-B: Mutual Fund Foundation Certification Examination 2hrs 1200/- 50 50 50 3
9 NISM-Series-V-C: Mutual Fund Distributors (Level 2) Certification Examination+ 2hrs 1770/- 100 75 60 25 3
10 NISM Series VI: Depository Operations Certification Examination 2hrs 1500/- 100 100 60 25 3
11 NISM Series VII: Securities Operations and Risk Management Certification Examination 2hrs 1500/- 100 100 50 25 3
12 NISM-Series-VIII: Equity Derivatives Certification Examination 2hrs 1500/- 100 100 60 25 3
13 NISM Series-IX: Merchant Banking Certification Examination 2hrs 1500/- 100 100 60 25 3
14 NISM-Series-X-A: Investment Adviser (Level 1) Certification Examination 3 hrs 3000+ 150 135 60 25 3
15 NISM-Series-X-B: Investment Adviser (Level 2) Certification Examination 3 hrs 3000+ 150 120 60 25 3
16 NISM Series-XII: Securities Markets Foundation Certification Examination+ 2hrs 1770/- 100 100 60 3
17 NISM Series-XIII: Common Derivatives Certification Examination 3hrs 3000/- 150 150 60 25 3
18 NISM Series-XIV: Internal Auditors for Stock Brokers Certification Examination+ 2hrs 1770/- 100 100 60 25 3
19 NISM Series-XV: Research Analyst Certification Examination 2hrs 1500/- 100 100 60 25 3
20 NISM-Series-XVI: Commodity Derivatives Certification Examination 2hrs 1500/- 100 100 60 25 3
21 NISM-Series-XVII: Retirement Adviser Certification Examination 2hrs 1500/- 100 100 60 25 3
22 NISM-Series-XVIII: Financial Education Certification Examination+ 2hrs 1416/- 50 50 50 3
23 NISM Series XIX-A: Alternative Investment Funds (Category I and II) Distributors+ 2hrs 1770 100 100 60 25 3
24 NISM-Series-XIX-B: Alternative Investment Funds (Category III) Distributors+ 2hrs 1770 100 100 60 25 3
25 NISM-Series-XX-Taxation in Securities Markets 2 hrs 1770+ 100 75 60 25 3
26 NISM Series XXI-A: Portfolio Management Services (PMS) Distributors 2hrs 1500 100 100 60 25 3
27 NISM Series XXI-B: Portfolio Managers 3 hrs 3000 150 105 60 25 3
28 NISM Series XXII: Fixed Income Securities+ 2hrs 1770+ 100 85 60 25 3
29 IBBI- Valuation Examination in the Asset Class: Land and Building 2hrs 1770/- 100 90 60 25
30 IBBI- Valuation Examination in the Asset Class: Plant and Machinery 2hrs 1770/- 100 90 60 25
31 IBBI- Valuation Examination in the Asset Class: Securities or Financial Assets 2hrs 1770/- 100 90 60 25

Gamma

How many of you recall doing mathematics in high school? Do the terms differentiation and integration sound familiar? Back then, the term “derivatives” meant something else to all of us: it simply referred to solving long differentiation and integration problems.

 

Let me try to refresh your memory – the goal here is to simply get a point through without delving into the complexities of solving a calculus issue. Please keep in mind that the next topic is very significant to possibilities; please continue reading.

Consider the following:

 

A car gets started and travels for 10 minutes till it reaches the third-kilometer point. The car goes for another 5 minutes from the 3rd-kilometer point to the 7th-kilometer mark.

 

Let us focus and note what really happens between the 3rd and 7th kilometer, –

  1. Let ‘x’ = distance, and ‘dx’ the change in distance
  2. Change in distance i.e. ‘dx’, is 4 (7 – 3)
  3. Let ‘t’ = time, and ‘dt’ the change in time
  4. Change in time i.e. ‘dt’, is 5 (15 – 10)

If we divide dx over dt i.e. change in distance over change in time we get ‘Velocity’ (V)!

V = dx / dt

= 4/5

 

This means the car travels 4 kilometres every 5 minutes. The velocity is expressed in kilometres per minute here, which is clearly not a convention we use in everyday language because we are used to expressing speed or velocity in kilometres per hour (KMPH).

 

By performing a simple mathematical change, we can convert 4/5 to KMPH –

 

When stated in hours, 5 minutes = 5/60 hours; inserting this into the preceding equation

= 4 / (5/ 60)

= (4*60)/5

= 48 Kmph

 

Hence the car is moving at a velocity of 48 kmph (kilometers per hour).

 

Remember that velocity is defined as the change in distance travelled divided by the change in time. In the field of mathematics, speed or velocity is known as the ‘first order derivative’ of distance travelled.

 

Let us expand on this example: the car arrived at the 7th Kilometer after 15 minutes on the first leg of the voyage. Assume that in the second leg of the voyage, beginning at the 7th-kilometer mark, the car continues for another 5 minutes and arrives at the 15th-kilometer mark. 

 

We know the car’s velocity on the first leg was 48 kmph, and we can easily compute the velocity on the second leg as 96 kmph (dx = 8 and dt = 5).

 

The car clearly travelled twice as fast on the second portion of the excursion.

 

Let us refer to the change in velocity as ‘dv.’ Change in velocity is also known as ‘Acceleration.’

 

We know that the velocity change is

 

= 96KMPH – 48 KMPH

= 48 KMPH /??

The above response implies that the velocity change is 48 KMPH…. but over what? Isn’t it perplexing?

 

Allow me to explain:

 

** The following explanation may appear to be a digression from the main topic of Gamma, but it is not, so please continue reading; if nothing else, it will refresh your high school physics **

 

When you go to buy a new car, the first thing the salesman tells you is, “the car is incredibly quick since it can accelerate from 0 to 60 in 5 seconds.” Essentially, he is stating that the car can accelerate from 0 KMPH (total rest) to 60 KMPH in 5 seconds. The velocity change here is 60KMPH (60 – 0) in 5 seconds.

 

Similarly, in the above case, we know the difference in velocity is 48KMPH, but over what distance? We won’t know what the acceleration is unless we answer the “over what” question.

 

We can make several assumptions to determine the acceleration in this particular scenario –

 

Constant acceleration
For the time being, we can disregard the 7th-kilometer mark and focus on the fact that the car was at the 3rd-kilometer mark at the 10th minute and reached the 15th-kilometer mark at the 20th minute.

 

Using the preceding information, we can deduce further information (known as the ‘starting conditions’ in calculus).

 

  1. Velocity @ the 10th minute (or 3rd kilometer mark) = 0 KMPS. This is called the initial velocity
  2. Time lapsed @ the 3rd kilometer mark = 10 minutes
  3. Acceleration is constant between the 3rd and 15th kilometer mark
  4. Time at 15th kilometer mark = 20 minutes
  5. Velocity @ 20th minute (or 15th kilometer marks) is called ‘Final Velocity”
  6. While we know the initial velocity was 0 kmph, we do not know the final velocity
  7. Total distance travelled = 15 – 3 = 12 kms
  8. Total driving time = 20 -10 = 10 minutes
  9. Average speed (velocity) = 12/10 = 1.2 kmps per minute or in terms of hours it would be 72 kmph

Now think about this, we know –

  • Initial velocity = 0 kmph
  • Average velocity = 72 kmph
  • Final velocity =??

By reverse engineering we know the final velocity should be 144 Kmph as the average of 0 and 144 is 72.

 

Further we know acceleration is calculated as = Final Velocity / time (provided acceleration is constant).

 

Hence the acceleration is –

 

= 144 kmph / 10 minutes

 

10 minutes, when converted to hours, is (10/60) hours, plugging this back into the above equation

 

= 144 kmph / (10/60) hour

= 864 Kilometers per hour.

 

This means the car is gaining 864 kilometres per hour, and if a salesman were to sell you this car, he would state it can accelerate from 0 to 72kmph in 5 seconds (I’ll let you do the arithmetic).

 

We greatly simplified this problem by assuming that acceleration is constant. In fact, however, acceleration is not constant; you accelerate at varied rates for obvious reasons. To calculate such problems involving changes in one variable as a result of changes in another variable, one must first learn derivative calculus, and then apply the notion of ‘differential equations.

 

Just consider this for a bit –

 

Change in distance travelled (position) = Velocity, often known as the first order derivative of distance position.

 

Acceleration = Change in Velocity

 

Acceleration is defined as a change in velocity over time, which results in a change in position over time.

 

As a result, it is appropriate to refer to Acceleration as the 2nd order derivative of position or the 1st derivative of Velocity!

 

Keep this fact about the first and second-order derivatives in mind as we move on to understanding the Gamma.

 

Drawing Parallels

We learned about Delta of choice in the previous chapters. As we all know, delta reflects the change in premium for a given change in underlying price.


For example, if the Nifty spot price is 8000, we know the 8200 CE option is out-of-the-money, so its delta might be between 0 and 0.5. For the sake of this conversation, let’s set it to 0.2.

 

Assume the Nifty spot rises 300 points in a single day, which means the 8200 CE is no longer an OTM option, but rather a slightly ITM option. As a result of this increase in spot value, the delta of the 8200 CE will no longer be 0.2, but rather somewhere between 0.5 and 1.0.

 

One thing is certain with this shift in underlying: the delta itself changes. Delta is a variable whose value varies according to changes in the underlying and premium! Delta is extremely similar to velocity in that its value changes as time and distance are changed.

An option’s Gamma estimates the change in delta for a given change in the underlying. In other words, the Gamma of an option helps us answer the question, “What will be the equivalent change in the delta of the option for a given change in the underlying?”

 let us assume 0.8.

 

One thing is certain with this shift in underlying: the delta itself changes. Delta is a variable whose value varies according to changes in the underlying and premium! Delta is extremely similar to velocity in that its value changes as time and distance are changed.

 

An option’s Gamma estimates the change in delta for a given change in the underlying. In other words, the Gamma of an option helps us answer the question, “What will be the equivalent change in the delta of the option for a given change in the underlying?”

 

Let us now reintroduce the velocity and acceleration example and draw some connections to Delta and Gamma.

 

1st order Derivative

The change in distance travelled (position) with respect to time is recorded by velocity, which is known as the first order derivative of position.

 

Delta captures the change in premium with regard to the change in underlying, and so delta is known as the premium’s first order derivative.

2nd order Derivative

 

  1. Acceleration captures the change in velocity with respect to time, and acceleration is known as the 2nd order derivative of position.
  2. Gamma captures changes in delta with respect to changes in the underlying value; thus, Gamma is known as the premium’s second order derivative.

As you might expect, calculating the values of Delta and Gamma (and any other Option Greeks) requires a lot of number crunching and calculus (differential equations and stochastic calculus).

 

Here’s a fun fact for you: derivatives are so-called because the value of the derivative contract is determined by the value of the underlying.

 

This value that derivative contracts derive from their respective basis is assessed through the use of “Derivatives” as a mathematical notion, which is why Futures and Options are referred to as “Derivatives.”

 

You might be interested to hear that there is a parallel trading universe where traders use derivative calculus to locate trading opportunities on a daily basis. Such traders are known as ‘Quants’ in the trading world, which is a somewhat sophisticated term. Quantitative trading is what resides on the other side of the ‘Markets’ mountain.

 

Understanding the 2nd order derivative, such as Gamma, is not an easy process in my experience, however, we will try to simplify it as much as possible in the next chapters.

 

The Curvature

We now know that the Delta of an option is a variable because its value changes in response to changes in the underlying. Let me repost the delta movement graph here –

 

learning sharks

Looking at the blue line showing the delta of a call option, it is evident that it travels between 0 and 1, or possibly from 1 to 0, depending on the situation. Similar observations may be made on the red line indicating the delta of the put option (except the value changes from 0 to 1). This graph underlines what we already know: the delta is a variable that changes over time. Given this, the question that must be answered is –

 

  1. I’m aware of the delta changes, but why should I care?
  2. If the delta change is important, how can I estimate the likely delta change?

We’ll start with the second question since I’m very positive the answer to the first will become clear as we proceed through this chapter.

 

As discussed in the previous chapter, ‘The Gamma’ (2nd order derivative of premium), also known when the option’s curvature, is the rate at which the option’s delta varies as the underlying changes. The gamma is typically stated in deltas gained or lost per one-point change in the underlying, with the delta increasing by the gamma when the underlying rises and falling by the gamma when the underlying falls.

For example, consider this –

 

  • Nifty Spot = 8326
  • Strike = 8400
  • Option type = CE
  • Moneyness of Option = Slightly OTM
  • Premium = Rs.26/-
  • Delta = 0.3
  • Gamma = 0.0025
  • Change in Spot = 70 points
  • New Spot price = 8326 + 70 = 8396
  • New Premium =??
  • New Delta =??
  • New moneyness =??

Let’s figure this out –

  • Change in Premium = Delta * change in spot  i.e  0.3 * 70 = 21
  • New premium = 21 + 26 = 47
  • Rate of change of delta = 0.0025 units for every 1 point change in underlying
  • Change in delta = Gamma * Change in underlying  i.e  0.0025*70 = 0.175
  • New Delta = Old Delta + Change in Delta  i.e  0.3 + 0.175 = 0.475
  • New Moneyness = ATM

When the Nifty moved from 8326 to 8396, the 8400 CE premium increased from Rs.26 to Rs.47, and the Delta increased from 0.3 to 0.475.

 

The option switches from slightly OTM to ATM with a shift of 70 points. That indicates the delta of the choice must change from 0.3 to close to 0.5. This is exactly what is going on here.

 

Let us also imagine that the Nifty rises another 70 points from 8396; let us see what occurs with the 8400 CE option –

  • Old spot = 8396
  • New spot value = 8396 + 70 = 8466
  • Old Premium = 47
  • Old Delta = 0.475
  • Change in Premium = 0.475 * 70 = 33.25
  • New Premium = 47 + 33.25 = 80.25
  • New moneyness = ITM (hence delta should be higher than 0.5)
  • Change in delta =0.0025 * 70 = 0.175
  • New Delta = 0.475 + 0.175 = 0.65

Let’s take this forward a little further, now assume Nifty falls by 50 points, let us see what happens with the 8400 CE option –

  • Old spot = 8466
  • New spot value = 8466 – 50 = 8416
  • Old Premium = 80.25
  • Old Delta = 0.65
  • Change in Premium = 0.65 *(50) = – 32.5
  • New Premium = 80.25 – 32. 5 = 47.75 
  • New moneyness = slightly ITM (hence delta should be higher than 0.5)
  • Change in delta = 0.0025 * (50) = – 0.125
  • New Delta = 0.65 – 0.125 = 0.525

Take note of how smoothly the delta transitions and follows the delta value principles we learned in previous chapters. You may also be wondering why the Gamma value is kept constant in the preceding samples. In reality, the Gamma also changes as the underlying changes. This change in Gamma caused by changes in the underlying is recorded by the 3rd derivative of the underlying, which is known as “Speed” or “Gamma of Gamma” or “DgammaDspot.” For all practical reasons, it is unnecessary to discuss Speed unless you are mathematically inclined or work for an Investment Bank where the trading book risk can be in the millions of dollars.

 

In contrast to the delta, the Gamma is always positive for both Call and Put options. When a trader is long options (both calls and puts), he is referred to as a ‘Long Gamma,’ and when he is short options (both calls and puts), he is referred to as a ‘Short Gamma.’

 

Consider this: the Gamma of an ATM Put option is 0.004, what do you believe the new delta is if the underlying moves 10 points?

Before you proceed, I would like you to take a few moments to consider the above solution.

The solution is as follows: Because we are discussing an ATM Put option, the Delta must be approximately -0.5. Remember that put options have a negative delta. As you can see, gamma is a positive number, i.e. +0.004. Because the underlying moves by 10 points without stating the direction, let us investigate what happens in both circumstances.

 

Case 1 – Underlying moves up by 10 points

  • Delta = – 0.5
  • Gamma = 0.004
  • Change in underlying = 10 points
  • Change in Delta = Gamma * Change in underlying = 0.004 * 10 = 0.04
  • New Delta = We know the Put option loses delta when underlying increases, hence – 0.5 + 0.04 = – 0.46

Case 2 – Underlying goes down by 10 points

  • Delta = – 0.5
  • Gamma = 0.004
  • Change in underlying = – 10 points
  • Change in Delta = Gamma * Change in underlying = 0.004 * – 10 = – 0.04
  • New Delta = We know the Put option gains delta when underlying goes down, hence – 0.5 + (-0.04) = – 0.54

Here’s a trick question for you: We’ve already established that the Delta of a Futures contract is always 1, therefore what do you believe the gamma of a Futures contract is? Please share your responses in the comment section below:).

 

Estimating Risk using Gamma

I know that many traders set risk limitations while trading. Here’s an illustration of what I mean by a risk limit: suppose a trader has Rs.300,000/- in his trading account. Each Nifty Futures contract requires a margin of roughly Rs.16,500/-. Please keep in mind that you can utilise Zerodha’s SPAN calculator to determine the margin necessary for any F&O contract. So, taking into account the margin and the M2M margin necessary, the trader may decide at any point that he does not want to hold more than 5 Nifty Futures contracts, thereby establishing his risk limitations; this seems reasonable and works well when trading futures.

Does the same rationale apply when trading options? Let’s see if this is the correct way to think about risk when trading options.

 

Consider the following scenario:

 

Lot size = 10 lots traded (Note: 10 lots of ATM contracts with 0.5 delta each equals 5 Futures contracts.)

  • Number of lots traded = 10 lots (Note – 10 lots of ATM contracts with a delta of 0.5 each is equivalent to 5 Futures contracts)
  • Option = 8400 CE
  • Spot = 8405
  • Delta = 0.5
  • Gamma = 0.005
  • Position = Short

The trader is short 10 lots of Nifty 8400 Call Option, indicating that he is trading within his risk tolerance. Remember how we talked about adding up the delta in the Delta chapter? To calculate the overall delta of the position, we can simply add up the deltas. Furthermore, each delta of one indicates one lot of the underlying. So we’ll keep this in mind and calculate the delta of the overall position.

  • Delta = 0.5
  • Number of lots = 10
  • Position Delta = 10 * 0.5 = 5

So, in terms of overall delta, the trader is within his risk limit of trading no more than 5 Futures lots. Also, because the trader is short options, he is effectively short gamma.

 

The delta of the position is 5, which means that the trader’s position will move 5 points for every 1 point movement in the underlying.

 

Assume the Nifty moves 70 points against him and the trader maintains his position, looking for a recovery. The trader clearly believes that he is holding 10 lots of options, which are within his risk tolerance…

 

Let’s do some forensics to figure out what’s going on behind the scenes –

  • Delta = 0.5
  • Gamma = 0.005
  • Change in underlying = 70 points
  • Change in Delta = Gamma * change in underlying = 0.005 * 70 = 0.35
  • New Delta = 0.5 + 0.35 = 0.85
  • New Position Delta = 0.85*10 = 8.5

Do you see the issue here? Despite having set a risk limit of 5 lots, the trader has exceeded it due to a high Gamma value and now owns positions worth 8.5 lots, much above his perceived risk limit. An inexperienced trader may be taken off guard by this and continue to believe he is well below his danger threshold. In actuality, his risk exposure is increasing.

 

Suggest you read that again in small bits if you found it confusing.

 

But since the trader is short, he is essentially short gamma…this means when the position moves against him (as in the market moves up while he is short) the deltas add up (thanks to gamma) and therefore at every stage of market increase, the delta and gamma gang up against the short option trader, making his position riskier way beyond what the plain eyes can see. Perhaps this is the reason why they say – shorting options carry a huge amount of risk. In fact, you can be more precise and say “shorting options carry the risk of being short gamma”.

 

Note – By no means I’m suggesting that you should not short options. In fact, a successful trader employs both short and long positions as the situation demands. I’m only suggesting that when you short options, you need to be aware of the Greeks and what they can do to your positions.

 

Also, I’d strongly suggest you avoid shorting option contracts which has a large Gamma.

 

This leads us to another interesting topic – what is considered a ‘large gamma’.

 

Gamma movement

We briefly examined the Gamma changes in relation to the change in the underlying earlier in the chapter. The 3rd order derivative named ‘Speed’ captures this shift in Gamma. For the reasons stated previously, I will refrain from discussing ‘Speed.’ However, we must understand the behaviour of Gamma movement in order to prevent beginning trades with high Gamma. Of course, there are other benefits to understanding Gamma behaviour, which we shall discuss later in this lesson. But for now, we’ll look at how the Gamma reacts to changes in the underlying.

 

Take a look at the graph below.

learning sharks

 

The chart above depicts three alternative CE strike prices – 80, 100, and 120 – as well as their corresponding Gamma movement. The blue line, for example, represents the Gamma of the 80 CE strike price. To minimise misunderstanding, I recommend that you examine each graph separately. In actuality, for the sake of clarity, I will only discuss the 80 CE strike option, which is represented by the blue line.

 

Assume the spot price is at 80, resulting in the ATM at 80. Keeping this in mind, we can see the following from the preceding chart –

 

  1. Because the strike under consideration is 80 CE, the option becomes ATM when the spot price equals 80 CE.
  2. Strike values less than 80 (65, 70, 75, etc.) are ITM, while values more than 80 (85, 90, 95, etx) are OTM.
  3. The gamma value for OTM Options is low (80 and above). This explains why the premium for OTM options does not change substantially in absolute point values but changes significantly in percentage terms. For example, the premium of an OTM option can rise from Rs.2 to Rs.2.5, and while the absolute change is only 50 paisa, the percentage change is 25%.
  4. When the option reaches ATM status, the gamma increases. This suggests that the rate of change of delta is greatest when ATM is selected. In other words, ATM options are particularly vulnerable to changes in the underlying.
  5. Also, avoid shorting ATM options because they have the biggest Gamma.
  6. The gamma value for ITM options is also low (80 and below). As a result, for a given change in the underlying, the rate of change of delta for an ITM option is substantially lower than for an ATM option. However, keep in mind that the ITM option has a significant delta by definition. As a result, while ITM delta reacts slowly to changes in the underlying (because to low gamma), the change in premium is significant (due to high base value of delta).
  7. Other strikes, such as 100 and 120, exhibit similar Gamma behaviour. In fact, the purpose of displaying different strikes is to demonstrate how the gamma operates consistently across all options strikes.

If the preceding talk was too much for you, here are three basic points to remember:

If the preceding talk was too much for you, here are three basic points to remember:

  1. For the ATM option, the delta varies quickly.
  2. Delta for OTM and ITM options changes slowly.
  3. Never sell ATM or ITM options in the belief that they would expire worthless.
  4. OTM options are excellent candidates for short trades if you intend to retain them until expiry and expect the option to expire worthless.

 

Quick note on Greek interactions

Understanding how individual option Greeks perform under different conditions is one of the keys to effective options trading. Now, in addition to knowing individual Greek behaviour, one must also comprehend how these individual option Greeks interact with one another.

 

So far, we have just analysed the premium change in relation to changes in the current price. We haven’t talked about time or volatility yet. Consider the markets and the real-time changes that occur. Time, volatility, and the underlying pricing all change. As a result, an options trader should be able to grasp these changes and their overall impact on the option premium.

This will only be completely appreciated if you grasp how the option Greeks interact with one another. Typical Greek cross interactions are gamma versus time, gamma versus volatility, volatility versus time, time versus delta, and so on.

 

Finally, all of your knowledge about the Greeks comes down to a few key decision-making elements, such as –

 

  1. Which strike is the best to trade under the current market conditions?
  2. What do you think the premium for that particular strike will be – will it rise or fall? As a result, would you be a buyer or a seller in that scenario?
  3. Is there a reasonable chance that the premium may rise if you buy an option?
  4. Is it safe to short an option if you intend to do so? Are you able to detect danger beyond what the naked eye can see?

All of these questions will be answered if you thoroughly grasp individual Greeks and their interactions.

 

Given this, here is how this module will evolve in the future –

 

  1. So far, we’ve figured out Delta and Gamma.
  2. We shall learn about Theta and Vega in the next chapters.
  3. When we present Vega (change in premium due to change in volatility), we will take a brief detour to comprehend volatility-based stoploss.
  4. Introduce Greek cross interactions such as Gamma vs Time, Gamma versus Spot, Theta versus Vega, Vega versus Spot, and so on.
  5. An explanation of the Black and Scholes option pricing formula
  6. Calculator of options

So, as you can see, we have a long way to go before we sleep:-).

 

Conclusion

  1. The rate of change of delta is measured by gamma.
  2. For both Calls and Puts, Gamma is always a positive value.
  3. Large Gamma can be associated with high risk (directional risk)
  4. You are long Gamma when you buy options (calls or puts).
  5. When you sell options (calls or puts), you sell Gamma.
  6. Avoid shorting options with a high gamma.
  7. For the ATM option, the delta varies quickly.
  8. Delta for OTM and ITM options changes slowly.

8.1 – Intrinsic Value

Learning sharks- stock market institute

8.1 – Intrinsic Value

The moneyness of an option contract is a classification method wherein each option (strike) gets classified as either – In the money (ITM), At the money (ATM), or Out of the money (OTM) option. This classification helps the trader to decide which strike to trade, given a particular circumstance in the market. However, before we get into the details, I guess it makes sense to look through the concept of intrinsic value again. The intrinsic value of an option is the money the option buyer makes from an options contract provided he has the right to exercise that option on the given day. Intrinsic Value is always a positive value and can never go below 0. Consider this example – Given this, imagine purchasing the 8050CE and having the option to exercise it today rather than waiting for it to expire in 15 days. What I want to know is how much money you would stand to make if you exercised the contract right now. Do you recall that when you exercise a long option, the profit is equal to the option's intrinsic value less the premium paid. Therefore, in order to determine an option's intrinsic value and respond to the question above, we must consult Chapter 3's call option intrinsic value formula. Here is the formula – Intrinsic Value of a Call option = Spot Price – Strike Price Let us plug in the values = 8070 – 8050 = 20


So, if you were to use this option right now, you would be able to earn 20 points (ignoring the premium paid).

Here is a table that determines the intrinsic value for different options strike (these are just arbitrary values I chose to illustrate the point).

I hope this has clarified how the intrinsic value calculation for a specific option strike is done. Here are a few key points I want to highlight:

The amount of money you would earn if you were to exercise the option is its intrinsic value.

An options contract’s intrinsic value is always positive. It could be a positive or negative number.

Call choice Spot price minus strike price is the intrinsic value.

Put choice Strike price minus spot price is intrinsic value.
Before we conclude this conversation, I have the following query for you: Why can’t the intrinsic value be negative, in your opinion?

Let’s use an illustration from the above table to respond to this the spot is 918, the option is 920.

  1. If you were to exercise this option, what do you get?
    1. Clearly, we get the intrinsic value.
  2. How much is the intrinsic value?
    1. Intrinsic Value = 918 – 920 = -2
  3. The formula suggests we get ‘– Rs.2’. What does this mean?
    1. This means Rs.2 is going from our pocket.
  4. Let us believe this is true for a moment; what will be the total loss?
    1. 15 + 2 = Rs.17/-
  5. But we know the maximum loss for a call option buyer is limited to the extent of the premium one pays; in this case, it will be Rs.15/-
    1. However, if we include a negative intrinsic value, this property of option payoff is not obeyed (Rs.17/- loss as opposed to Rs.15/-). However, to maintain the non-linear property of option payoff, the Intrinsic value can never be negative
  6. You can apply the same logic to the put option intrinsic value calculation

Hopefully, this should give you some insights into why the intrinsic value of an option can never go negative.

Image source - zerodha

8.2 – Moneyness of a Call option

With our previous discussions on the intrinsic value of an option, the concept of moneyness should be fairly simple to grasp. The moneyness of an option is a classification method that ranks each option strike according to how much money a trader will make if he exercises his option contract today. There are three broad categories –

 

 

  1. In the Money (ITM)
  2. At the Money (ATM)
  3. Out of the Money (OTM)

And for all practical purposes, I guess it is best to further classify these as –

  1. Deep In the money
  2. In the Money (ITM)
  3. At the Money (ATM)
  4. Out of the Money (OTM)
  5. Deep Out of the Money

 

The concept of moneyness should be fairly simple to grasp given our previous discussions on the intrinsic value of an option. An option’s moneyness is a classification method that ranks each option strike based on how much money a trader will make if he exercises his option contract today. There are three major categories:

 

Let us use an example to better understand this. As of today (7th May 2015), the Nifty is trading at 8060. With this in mind, I’ve taken a snapshot of all the available strike prices (the same is highlighted within a blue box). The goal is to categorise each of these strikes as ITM, ATM, or OTM. We’ll talk about the ‘Deep ITM’ and ‘Deep OTM’ later.

 

 

The available strike prices trade start at 7100 and go all the way up to 8700, as shown in the image above.

We’ll start with ‘At the Money Option (ATM)’ because it’s the simplest to deal with.

 

According to the ATM option definition that we posted earlier, an ATM option is the option strike that is closest to the spot price. Given that the spot is at 8060, the closest strike is most likely at 8050. If there was an 8060 strike, 8060 would undoubtedly be the ATM option. However, in the absence of 8060 strikes, the nearest strike becomes ATM. As a result, we classify 8050 as an ATM option.

 

After we’ve determined the ATM option (8050), we’ll look for ITM and OTM options.

 

  1. 7100
  2. 7500
  3. 8050
  4. 8100
  5. 8300

Do remember the spot price is 8060, keeping this in perspective the intrinsic value for the strikes above would be –

@ 7100

Intrinsic Value = 8060 – 7100

= 960

Non zero value, hence the strike should be In the Money (ITM) option

@7500

Intrinsic Value = 8060 – 7500

= 560

Non zero value, hence the strike should be In the Money (ITM) option

@8050

We know this is the ATM option as 8050 strike is closest to the spot price of 8060. So we will not bother to calculate its intrinsic value.

@ 8100

Intrinsic Value = 8060 – 8100

= – 40

Negative intrinsic value, therefore the intrinsic value is 0. Since the intrinsic value is 0, the strike is Out of the Money (OTM).

@ 8300

Intrinsic Value = 8060 – 8300

= – 240

 

 

Because there is a negative intrinsic value, the intrinsic value is 0. Because the intrinsic value is zero, the strike is ineligible (OTM).


You may have picked up on the generalisations (for call options) that exist here, but allow me to reiterate.

 

OTM are all option strikes that are higher than the ATM strike.

 

All option strikes that are less than the ATM strike are regarded as ITM.
In fact, I recommend that you take another look at the snapshot we just posted -7100.

 

NSE displays ITM options on a pale yellow background, while all OTM options have a standard white background. Let’s take a look at two ITM options: 7500 and 8000. The intrinsic values are 560 and 60, respectively (considering the spot is at 8060). The greater the intrinsic value, the more profitable the option. As a result, 7500 strikes are considered “Deep in the Money,” while 8000 strikes are considered “In the Money.”

 

I would advise you to keep track of the premiums for all of these strike prices (highlighted in the green box). Is there a pattern here? As you move from the ‘Deep ITM’ option to the ‘Deep OTM option,’ the premium decreases. In other words, ITM options are always more expensive than OTM options.

 

 

8.3 – Moneyness of a Put option

Let us repeat the exercise to see how strikes are classified as ITM and OTM for Put options. Here’s a look at the various strikes available for a Put option. A blue box surrounds the strike prices on the left. Please keep in mind that at the time of the snapshot (8th May 2015), the Nifty was trading at 8202.

 

As you can see, there are a wide range of strike prices available, ranging from 7100 to 8700. We will first classify the ATM option before identifying the ITM and OTM options. Because the spot is at 8202, the ATM option should be the closest to the spot. As seen in the above snapshot, there is a strike at 8200, which is currently trading at Rs.131.35/-. This is obviously the ATM option.

 

 

We’ll now select a few strikes above and below the ATM to determine ITM and OTM options. Let us consider the following strikes and assess their intrinsic value (also known as moneyness) –

 

 

7500
8000
8200
8300
8500
@ 7500

We know the intrinsic value of the put option can be calculated as = Strike – Spot.

Intrinsic Value = 7500 – 8200

= – 700

Negative intrinsic value, therefore the option is OTM

@ 8000

Intrinsic Value = 8000 – 8200

= – 200

Negative intrinsic value, therefore the option is OTM

@8200

8200 is already classified as an ATM option. Hence we will skip this and move ahead.

@ 8300

Intrinsic Value = 8300 – 8200

= +100

Positive intrinsic value, therefore the option is ITM

@ 8500

Intrinsic Value = 8500 – 8200

= +300

 

 

Because there is a positive intrinsic value, the option is ITM.

As a result, an easy generalisation for Put options is –

All strikes that are higher than the ATM options are considered ITM.
All strikes with a strike price less than ATM are considered OTM.

And, as the snapshot shows, the premiums for ITM options are significantly higher than the premiums for OTM options.

 

 

I hope you now understand how option strikes are classified based on their moneyness. However, you may be wondering why you need to categorise options based on their monetary value. Again, the answer is found in ‘Option Greeks.’ Option Greeks, as you may have guessed, are market forces that act on options strikes and thus affect the premium associated with them.

 

8.4 – The Option Chain

  1. The underlying spot value is at Rs.68.7/- (highlighted in blue)
  2. The Call options are on to the left side of the option chain
  3. The Put options are on to the right side of the option chain
  4. The strikes are stacked on an increasing order in the centre of the option chain
  5. Considering the spot at Rs.68.7, the closest strike is 67.5. Hence that would be an ATM option (highlighted in yellow)
  6. For Call options – all option strikes lower than ATM options are ITM option. Hence they have a pale yellow background
  7. For Call options – all option strikes higher than ATM options are OTM options. Hence they have a white background
  8. For Put Options – all option strikes higher than ATM are ITM options. Hence they have a pale yellow background
  9. For Put Options – all option strikes lower than ATM are OTM options. Hence they have a white background
  10. The pale yellow and white background from NSE is just a segregation method to bifurcate the ITM and OTM options. The colour scheme is not a standard convention.

Here is the link to check the option chain for Nifty Options.

 

 

 

 

8.4 – The way forward

After learning the fundamentals of call and put options from both the buyer and seller perspectives, as well as the concepts of ITM, OTM, and ATM, I believe we are all ready to delve deeper into options.

 

 

The following chapters will be devoted to comprehending Option Greeks and the impact they have on option premiums. We will devise a method to select the best possible strike to trade for a given market circumstance based on the impact of Option Greeks on premiums. We will also learn how options are priced by running the ‘Black & Scholes Option Pricing Formula’ briefly. The ‘Black & Scholes Option Pricing Formula’ will help us understand why the Nifty 8200 is so volatile.